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Date posted: November 6, 2011

Maximum Marks : 200
Time Allowed : Two Hours
1.IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION/YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO. GET IT REPLACED BY COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2.ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3.You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet m the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5.You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6.All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer. Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet and rough sheets issued to you.

1. The fundamental cause of congenital idiosyncrasy is

  • (a) Psoric Miasm   
  • (b) Syphitic Miasm   
  • (c) Sycotic Miasm .   
  • (d) Tubercular Miasm   

2. Semilateral headache with blurred vision or blindness preceding the attack—must lie down, aversion to light and noise, sight returns as headache increases, headache in small spot can be covered by tip of finger. Indicate the remedy from the following

  • (a) Gels.
  • (b) Kali-bi
  • (c) Sang.
  • (d) Spigelia

3. It is a slow, deep acting remedy, belongs to anti-psoric, anti-sycotic and anti- syphilitic’ family, there is a tendency of destruction of tissues, especially syphilitic complaints and bony disease. Patient is very hot. Which one of the following is the correct remedy ?

  • (a) Carbolic Acid
  • (b) Mere sol.
  • (c) Fluoric Acid
  • (d) Nitric Acid

4. Match List-1 (Symptom Triads) with List-11 (Medicine) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 List-11
(Symptom Triads) (Medicine)
A. Constriction. Contraction, 1. Arg-Nit.
Congestion
B. Apprehension,                 2. Cactus.
anticipation, hurried
C. Chilly, dirty, offensive       3. Canth.
D. Sexual instinct, sexual    4. Psor.
thought, sexual frenzy
Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 3412
  • (b) A B C D
  • 2143
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3142
  • (d) A B C D
  • 2413

5. Bad effects of anger, grief, or disappointed love, broods in solitude over imaginary troubles, persons mentally and physically exhausted by long concentrated grief. Which one of the following is the correct remedy for above symptom complex ?

  • (a) Agaricus
  • (b) Cup-met.
  • (c) Hyos.
  • (d) Ignatia

6. Match List-1 (Homoeopathic medicines) with List-11 (Time of aggravation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 List-11
(Homoeopathic            (Time of
medicines)                  aggravation)
A. Arsenicum     1- 10 or 11.00 A.M.
B. Syphilinum     2. 4 to 9 P.M.
C. Nat. Mur.       3.  Sunset to Sunrise
D. Colocymhis    4. 1 to 2 A.M.
Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  •  4312
  • (b) A B C D
  • 1243
  • (c) A B C D
  • 4213
  • (d) A B C D
  • 13 4 2

7. Consider the following symptoms regarding haemorrhagic diathesis :
1. Hammamelis V—Prostration out of proportion to the amount of blood loss   2. Secale Cor.—continuous oozing of samous liquid blood   3. Lachesis—Haemorrhage from left side of the body; bright red and coagulable   4. Cinchona—Aversion to sour things during haemorrhage
Which of these statements is/are correct ?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 2
  • (c) 2, 3 and 4 ,
  • (d) 3 and 4

8. A 7-years old child with convulsions, screams and has violent jerking of hands and feet. He, has pinching colic in abdomen before passing stool with mucus like white pieces of popped corn; also grinds teeth at night. Choose the correct remedy from the following :

  • (a) Bell .
  • (b) Chamomilla
  • (c) Cicuta
  • (d) Cina

9. Match List-1 (Medicines) with List-11 (Symptom in a case of prolapse uterus)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 List-I1
(Medicines) (Symptom in a case of prolapsed uterus)
A. Stannum    1. Worse during stool
B. Belladonna 2. Better standing and sitting erect
C. Sepia        3. Better supporting vulva with hands
D. Lilium tig   4. Better by sit close
Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 1324
  • (b) A B C D
  • 1342
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3124
  • (D) A B C D
  • 3142

10. A 46-year old woman consults you for painful swelling of the throat for about 12 days. The complaints started with fever (mild) with chilliness followed by painful swelling. Associated with suffocation and attacks of palpitations. No cough. Wants to keep feet in cool place. Very hungry. All complaints are better by eating. Thirst is excessive. On examination Thyroid enlarged. Which one of the following will you choose in this case ?

  • (a) lodum
  • (b) Phos
  • (c) Spongia
  • (d) Sulphur

11. Regarding simple hypertrophy of heart, consider the following symptoms and remedies mentioned against them.
1.  Chronic hypertrophy without valvular lesions—NAJA. T.   2. Hypertrophy with valvular lesions and cardiac dropsy—ADONIS. V.   3. Hypertrophy without valvular lesion and extreme dyspnoea on least exertion—CREATAGUS   4. Atheroma without weakness of heart—CACTUS. G   Which of these is/are correct ?

  • (a) 1 and 2
  • (b) 2 and 3
  • (c) 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2. 3 and 4

12. A nine-year old child is brought to you. ‘ J with complaints of moderate fever and sore throat for 2 days. There is sore aching, bruised feeling all over the body. On examination, head is hot and limbs are cold. Tonsils are red with white patches. He also feels as if a hot coal were present in his throat. Which one of the following will you choose for him ?

  • (a) Bell
  • (b) Arnica
  • (c) Merc-.Cya.
  • (d) Phytolacca

13. A female of 45 years of have has sciatica of right side which always aggravates in night .during sleep and is better when not lying onngIrFii’ae. She has growing pain in stomach but feels better bv_eating. Throat is painful on swallowing which becomes worse after taking warm liquids.

  • (a) Lycopodium
  • (b) Phytolacca
  • (c) Lachesis
  • (d) Mere. iod. flavus

14. Consider the following drugs :

  • 1. Rhus tox   
  • 2. Conium Mac   
  • 3. Nux Vomica   
  • 4. Ranunculus bulbosus   

Which of the above are obtained from  poisonous plants ?

  • (a) 1.2,3 and 4
  • (b) 2. 3 and 4
  • (c) 1, 2 and 3
  • (d) 1 and 4

15. A patient cannot walk with eyes closed.trembles with general debility, has paralysis with mental and abdominal symptoms, has rigidity of calves with debility, walks and stands unsteady especially when unobserved. Has numbness in arms and post-diphtheritic paralysis. Remedy suitable for this patient is :

  • (a) Gels
  • (b) Causticum
  • (c) Chamomilla
  • (d) Arg. nit.

16. Match List-1 (Medicine) with List-11 (Diseases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 List-11
(Medicine) (Diseases)
A. Parotidinum   1. Quincy
B. Pertussin       2. Puerperal fever
C. Pyrogen         3. Whooping cough
D. Baryta carb   . 4. Mumps
Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 4321
  • (b) A B C D
  • 4312
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3421
  • (d) A B C D
  • 3412

17. Which of the following is the correct order that matches with the sequential order of “Desire for sweets”, “Aversion to sweets” and “Aggravation from sweets” ?

  • (a) Arg-nit; China -off; Graphites
  • (b) China-off; Arg-nit; Graphites
  • (c) Graphites; Arg-nit; China-off
  • (d) China-off; Graphites; Arg-nit i

18. Consider the following medicines andsymptoms regarding Abdominal Colic :
1. Colocynth : Pain in abdomen with restlessness and better by hard pressure and bending double
2. Ptalina : Pain in abdomen with restlessness and better by hard pre—ure and warmth application    3. Mag. Phos. : Pain in abdomen better by passing stool
4. Chamomilla : Pain in abdomen with irritability
Which of these statements is/are correct ?

  • (a) 1. 2 and 3
  • (b) 1 and 4
  • (c) 2 and 3
  • (d) 4 only

19.’Oversensitiveness of nerves, scratching of linen or silk, crackling of papers is unbearable* is a characteristic symptom of

  • (a) Antimonium crudum   
  • (b) Staphysagria   
  • (c) Asarum europium   
  • (d) Ptelea   

20. From amongst the remedies (anti- miasmatic) given below, pick-out the ‘Grand Anti-sycotic* remedies :

  • (a) Arg.n.; Med.; Nat-s; Sep.   
  • (b) Ars-i; Kali-i; Merc-c.; Med.   
  • (c) Nat-s; Sep.; Aur-m-n.; Kali-i.   
  • (d) Merc-c.; Kali-i; Aur-m-n.; Ars-i.   

21. Patient is fat, chilly with delayed menstrual history. Nails are deformed, crumbling and brittle, sore and painful. The remedy is

  • (a) Calc. carb   
  • (b) Mere. sol   
  • (c) Sulphur   
  • (d) Graphites   

23.Consider the following medicines :

  • 1. Merc sol   
  • 2. Coffea cruda   
  • 3. Plantago   
  • 4. Bismuth 

Which of the above medicines are applicable in the case of toothache amelioration by holding icy cold water inside the mouth ?

  • (a) 1 and 2
  • (b) 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 4
  • (d) 2. 3 and 4

24. Directions ;
The following SIX items consist of two statements, one labelled as *Assertion A* and the other labelled as ‘Reason R*. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly :
Codes :

  • (a) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true

25. Assertion
(A): Mag. Phos is preferredto Belladonna in spasmodic pains.
Reason (R) : In Belladonna congestion is marked and pain appears and disappears suddenly.

26. Assertion (A): Alumina is “the Aconite of chronic diseases”.
Reason (R) : The treatment of all the chronic diseases can be initiated with Alumina without considering the symptom totality or any other criterion whatsoever.

27. Assertion (A) : Typhoid fever can not be aborted under Homoeo- pathic treatment.
Reason (R) : Baptisia in low dilution produces a form of antibodies to the bacillus typhosus.

28. Assertion (A): Sulphur is a great antipsoric remedy.
Reason (R) : Sulphur often has a great use in beginning the treatment of the psoric cases.

29. Assertion (A) : It seems probable that in Ars. lod., there is a remedy most closely allied to the mani- festations of tuberculosis.
Reason (R) : Clinically it is not advisable in tuberculosis to begin the treatment with Ars. lod.

30. Assertion (A): Arsenic is a sheep’s remedy, Antim crud is a horse’s remedy and Puls is a pig’s remedy.
Reason (R) : According to Teste, Arsenic acts best onvegetable eating animal than Camivora; having power to withstand wind with nervous restlessness.
Antim crud has tendency to grow fat; and easily frightened with dullness of intelligence.

31. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?

  • (a) Possibility of spontaneous passing of renal stones is very little if the size of stone is more than 6 mm.   
  • (b) More strain, less urine, with lacking force, indicates Cystitis Vesical Calculus.   
  • (c) Pancreatic Calculus is common in Indian population who cohsum Tapioca.   
  • (d) Charcot’ s triad stands for intermittent jaundice, colic and fever in gall bladder calculus obstruction.   

32. In a suspected case of “Acute Infective Appendicitis” which one of the following investigations will confirm the diagnosis ?

  • (a) Ultrasonography   
  • (b) Skiagram   
  • (c) Barium meal follow up   
  • (d) Total leucocyte count   

33.) Match List-1 (Positive finding) with List-11 (Diagnosis) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

  • A. Murphy’s sign
  • B. Serum amylase
  • C. Taenia solium
  • D. Codman’s triangle

(Diagnosis)
1. Cysticercosis
2. Osteosarcoma
3. Cholecystitis
4. Mumps

  • (a) A B C D
  • 3 4 1 2
  • (b) A B C. D
  • 1 2 3 4
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3 2 1 4
  • (d) A B C D
  • 4 3 2

34.Match List-1 (Radiological findings) with List-11 (Type of Calculi) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists    List-1 (Radiological findings)                                        List-11 (Type of Calculi)

  • A. Radio opaque.
  • B. Radio opaqueand soft like bee wax
  • C. Dirty white.’ hard, smooth-surfaced and opaque
  • D. Non-opaque and smooth-surfaced
  • 1. Staghorn stone
  • 2. Urate stones
  • 3. Oxalatc stones
  • 4. Cystine stone

Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 3 4 1 2
  • (b) A B C D
  • 2 1 4 3
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3 1 4 2
  • (d) A B C D
  • 2 4 1 3

33. Lumbar puncture is contra-indicated in the case of

  • (a) Bacterial Meningitis   
  • (b) Brain Abscess   
  • (c) Multiple Sclerosis   
  • (d) Syphilis   

34. How many layers have to be removed in Morris Parallelogram ?

  • (a) Four   
  • (b) Five   
  • (c) Six   
  • (d) Seven   

35. During difficult dentition, children are unable to digest milk. This is a characteristic symptom of

  • (a) Mag. m   
  • (b) Nat. m   
  • (c) Ars. alb   
  • (d) Rhus. tox   

36.(Match List-1 (Pathology) with List-11 (Diagnosis) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-11 (Diagnosis)
List-1 (Pathology)
1.Avascularnecrosis   A. Chyle in Fuariasis urine
2. Carcinoma of prostate   B. Increased Perthes’ disease
C.serum acid phosphatase
Codes :

  • (a) A B C
  • 1 2 3
  • (b) A B C
  • 3 1 2
  • (c) A’ B C
  • 2 3 1
  • (d) A B C
  • 3 2 1

37 Most dependable radiological sign of duodenal ulcer is the

  • (a) constant deformity of the duodenal cap   
  • (b) fleeting filling of the cap   
  • (c) ulcer crater   
  • (d) increased peristaltic activity in the stomach   

38. Match List-1 (Medicines) with List-11 (Diseases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1
(Medicines)  List-11   (Diseases)

  • A. Urtica urens     1. Eye injury
  • B. Secale cor       2.Superficial bum
  • C. Kali bichrome;  3. Gangrene
  • D. Symphytun      4. Full thickness burn

Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 4 1 2 3
  • (B) A B C D
  • 2 3 4 1
  • (c) A B C D
  • 4 3 2 1
  • (d) A B C D
  • 2 1 4 3

39. During antenatal check-up, the expectant mother is identified as a high-risk case if she is suffering from

  • (a) Hypertension and Nephritis   
  • (b) Hypertension and Appendicitis   
  • (c) Nephritis and Neuralgic pain   
  • (d) Neuralgic pain and Headache   

40. Which one among the following is the most common type of ectopic pregnancy ?

  • (a) Ovarian   
  • (b) Primary abdominal   
  • (c) Interstitial   
  • (d) Tubal 

41. If the growth of foetus does NOT correlate with the period of amenorrhea, the medicine prescribed should be

  • (a) Calc. carb   
  • (b) Mere. cor   
  • (c) Secale cor   
  • (d) Baryta carb   

42. Match List-1 (Character of vaginal discharge—leukorrhea) with List-11 (Pathology) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :   List-1 List-11
(Character of vaginal discharge —leukorrhea)

  • A. Irritating  - discharge
  • B.Yellow discharge
  • C.Offensive. discharge
  • D..Blood- .stained  discharge

(Pathology)

  • 1. Oestrogen deficiency (Senile Vaginitis)
  • 2.Candida albicans infection
  • 3. Bacterial infection
  • 4. Carcinoma of the cervix

  Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 2 3 4 1
  • (b) A B C D
  • 4 3 2 . 1
  • (c) A B C D
  • 2 1 4 3
  • (d) A B C D
  • 4 1 2 3

43. The complication of the third stage of labour is caused by

  • (a) retained placenta   
  • (b) obstructed labour   
  • (c) rigid os   
  • (d) elderly primigravida   

44. Hydatidiform mole is principally a disease of

  • (a) amnion   
  • (b) chorion   
  • (c) ovum   
  • (d) decidua 

(45 Which one of the following is the “commonest cause ofP.P.H. (Post Partum Haemorrhage) ?

  • (a) early primigravida   
  • (b) twin pregnancy   
  • (c) obstructed labour   
  • (d) retained placenta   

46. Which one of the following should be the choice of treatment for a lady who is a mother of two children and suffering from profiise Per Vaginalbleeding at the time of climacteric sonography revealing fibroid uterus ?

  • (a) Regular blood transfusion’
  • (b) Improving the general health
  • (c) Hysterectomy
  • (d) Treatment for the fibroid

47. llWhich one of the following is the commonest cause of abortion in the third trimester ?

  • (a) Uterine malfunction   
  • (b) Fibroid uterus   
  • (c) Chronic maternal illness.   
  • (d) Cervical incompetence  

48.Apthous patches in vagina are found in

  • (a) Caulophyllum and Alumina   
  • (b) Caulophyllum and Cocpulus indica    
  • (c) Sepia   
  • (d) Kreosotum   

49. Match List-1 (P-Wave abnormalities) with * List-11 (Conditions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1
List-11 (Conditions)

  • 1. Left atrial enlarge-ment
  • 2. Dextrocardia _(P-Wave abnormalities)
  • 3. Right atrial , enlargement
  • 4. Atrial fibrillation
  • A. Absent’P-Wave
  • B. Tall & Peaked P’Wave
  • C. Inverted P-Wave in lead I
  • D. Wide and notched P-Wave

50. A, male aged 50 years presents with flu- tike symptoms and complains of malaise and tiredness. He also complains of bleeding gums, epistaxis and mouth ulcers. On examination, liver and spleen are found enlarged. Total leucocyte count is 100,000/ cu mm. Bone-marrow is hyper-cellular with Blast-cells more than 30% and with the presence of Ater rods>in the Blast- cells. The most Hkely diagnosis is

  • (a) Acute Myeloblastic Leukaemia
  • (b) Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
  • (c) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
  • (d) Chronic Lymphatic Leukaemia

51. In which one of the following conditions, is Serum Alkaline Phosphatase NOT raised ?

  • (a) HypothyrQidism   
  • (b) ”Paget’s disease.   
  • (c) Hepatic disease resulting from certain drugs’   
  • (d) Osteoblastic bone disease   

(52) Match List-1 (Characteristic Temperature Patterns) with List-11 (Disease Conditions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1  (Characteristic (Disease Patterns)
List-11  Temperature Conditions)

  • A. Saddle-lacktemperature    1. Typhoid ,2nd week
  • B. Step ladder temperature   2. Hodgkin’s disease
  • C. Pel-Ebstein  fever             3. Typhoid 1st week
  • D. Continuous fever              4.Dengue fever
  • (b) A B C D
  • 2 3 4   1
  • c) A B C D
  • 4321
  • (d) A B C D
  • 2143.

53. A 28-year old female consults you with 6 weeks history of numbness and paraesthesia in her hands and feet associated with Diplopia and blurred vision in her right eye. These symptoms resolve with the treatment of few weeks. What is the clinical diagnosis ?

  • (a) Hysteria
  • (b) Multiple sclerosis
  • (c) Guillain-Barre Syndrome
  • (d) Brain tumour

54. Match List-1 (Clinical Signs) with List-11 (Diseases) and select the correct answer. using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 (ClinicalSigns)
A. Osler’sNode
B. Haberden’s Node
C. Haygarth’s Node   (Fusiform swelling of Proximal inter- phalangeal joint)
D. Virchow’s Node
List-II (Diseases)
1. Carcinoma Stomach
2. Rheumatoid Arthritis
3: Osteo-Arthritis
4. Silbacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 1 2 3 4
  • b) A B C D
  • 4 3 2 1
  • (c) A B C D
  • 1 3 2 4
  • (d) A B C D
  • 4 2 3 1

55. A 65-years old woman presents with tremors of hands specially on rest. She complains of slowness in her daily activities and drooling of saliva. She can not perform fine movements and often has difficulty in writing. On examination (1) Fixity of facial expression with poorly modulated voice, (2) Festinating gait and (3) a Flexor Plantar-response are found. Most likely diagnosis is

  • (a) Wilson’s disease
  • (b) Parkinson’s disease
  • (c) Huntington’s disease
  • (d) Alzheimer s disease

56. A 27-year old man consults you with a 3 month history of Diarrhoea. Now he has developed right upper abdominal pain and high fever with chill. On enquiry he also complains of pain in his right shoulder.The clinical diagnosis in this case is

  • (a) Amoebic Hepatitis
  • (b) Koch’s abdomen
  • (c) Malaria
  • (d) AIDS

57, Match List-1 (Character of Sputum) with List-11 (Diagnostic Value) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 (Character of Sputum)
A. Green and Diagnostic Value.
1. Bronchiectasis       1.yellow sputum
B. Rusty sputum        2. Left Ventricular failure
C. Large amount,purulent and offensive sputum   3. Bacterial infection
D. Pink and frothysputum ; (Pneumococcal)        4. Pneumonia
Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 3412
  • (b) A B C D
  • 4312
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3421
  • (d) A B C D
  • 4321

58,) Generalised oedema can not be caused by

  • (a) Nephrotic syndrome   
  • (b) Cirrhosis of liver   
  • (c) Starvation   
  • (d) Hyperthyroidism   

59. The peripheral blood film in “iron deficiency anaemia” is

  • (a) hyper chromic macrocytic   
  • (b) normo chromic nonnocytic   
  • (c) hypo chromic microcytic   
  • (d) normo chromic microcytic   

60. Which one of the following poisons results in bright cherry red coloured post-mortem lividity ?

  • (a) Opium   
  • (b) Potassium chloride   
  • c) Carbon monoxide   
  • (d) Phosphorus   

61. The Xiphoid process unites with the body of the sternum at the age of

  •  (a) 60 years   
  • (b) 40 years   
  • (c) 25 years   
  • (d) 16 years   

62. Which one of the following enzymes is antagonistic to Insulin ?

  • (a) Glucagon   
  • (b) Pepsin   
  • (c) Seratonin   
  • (d) Trypsin   

63.The median cubital vein is the vein of choice for intravenous injection for withdrawing blood from donors and for Catheterization because it

  • (a) is a long vein
  • (b) does not slip during perceiving
  • (c) is an accessory vein
  • (d) is a deep vein

64. The most important part of levator am is

  • (a) Ilio-coccygeous   
  • (b) Ischio-coccygeous   
  • (c) Pubo-coccygeous   
  • (d) Ischio-pubic part of the coccygeous    

65. Disease of hip may produce referred pain in knee because of

  • (a) Femoral and Sciatic nerve   
  • (b) Femoral and Obturator nerve   
  • (c) Obturator and Sciatic nerve   
  • (d) only Sciatic nerve   

66. The sequence of symptoms in Murphy’s syndrome is

  • (a) Pain, vomiting, diarrhoea   
  • (b) Fever, pain, vomiting   
  • (c) Vomiting, pain, fever   
  • (d) Pain, vomiting, fever   

67. The submucosa of which one of the following G.IT. organs is completely filled with Bnmner*s glands ?

  • (a) Appendix   
  • (b) Colon   
  • (c) Duodenum   
  • (d) Oesophagus   

68. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) ‘” principally controls the secretion of

  • (a) Thyroid hormones   
  • (b) Cortisol   
  • (c) Follicle-Stimulating hormone   
  • (d) Luteinizing hormone     

69. Which of the following is/are due to the closure of Semilunar Valves, and mark(s) the onset of ventricular diastole ?

  • (a) First Heart Sound   
  • (b) Second Heart Sound   
  • (c) Both First and Second Heart Sound   
  • (d) Third and Fourth Heart Sound   

70. The breakdown of haemoglobin takes place mainly in

  • (a) Liver cells   
  • (b) Kidney tubules   
  • (c) Erythrocytes   
  • (d) Reticulo-endothelial system     

71. The Hepatic triad constitutes

  • (a) interlobular branches of portal vein, branch of hepatic artery and bile duct   
  • (b) Central vein, bile duct and branch of hepatic artery   
  • (c) Central vein, lymphatics and bile duct   
  • (d) interlobular branches of portal vein, branch of hepatic artery and lymphatics 

72. Casoni’s intradermal test is done for the diagnosis of

  • (a) schistosomiasis   
  • (b) hydatid cyst   
  • (c) fish tapeworm infestation 
  • (d) fascioliasis   

73.A male patient aged 50 years was suffering from severe pain in bones. Blood examination revealed haemoglobin 7-8 g/d/ and ESR 140 mm in first hour. Bone marrow examination showed the presence of plenty of plasma cells arranged in sheets. The most likely diagnosis was

  • (a) Hypoplastic Anaemia
  • (b) Osteoporosis
  • (c) Multiple Myeloma
  • (d) Secondary deposits in bones

74. Leiomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor originating from

  • (a) bone marrow   
  • (b) striated muscle   
  • (c) fibrous tissue   
  • (d) smooth muscle 

75. Consider the following features :

  • 1. Pleomorphism –   
  • 2. Loss of polarity   
  • 3. Atypical mitosis   
  • 4. Alteration of nuclear : Cytoplasmic ratio
    (a) A B C D
    1324
    (b) A B C D
    423 1
    (c) A B C D
    1234
    (d) A B C D
    4321    

76. Which of these features is/are helpful for confirmation of a malignant tumour ?

  • (a) 1 and 2   
  • (b) 3 only   
  • (c) 2. 3 and 4   
  • (d) 1 and 4   

76. During his study on filariasis in China . Manson observed that laboratory workers in night-shifts were better because they identified lots of microfilaria while day- workers did not identify even a single microfilaria. Thus he excluded all the day- woricers from the blood test.    This action was not justified because

  • (a) microfilaria are formed during night
  • (b) mosquitoes introduce microfilaria during night
  • (c) microfilaria appear in peripheral blood at night
  • (d) microfilaria are destroyed by day- light

77. For the diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease during histological examination one should confirm the presence of

  • (a) Lymphocytes   
  • (b) Reed-Stemberg cells   
  • (c) Macropolycytes   
  • (d) Shikata cells 

78. Cloudy swelling occurs in

  • (a) Heart   
  • (b) Kidney   
  • (c) Liver   
  • (d) Lung   

79. Cholesterol level in blood does NOT increase in the case of

  • (a) Nephrotic syndrome   
  • (b) Obstructive Jaundice 
  • (c) Hypoparathyroidism   
  • (d) Hyperthyroidism 

80. Which one of the following drugs is prepared from “Indian Turnip” ?

  • (a) Aurum metallicum   
  • (b) Arum triphyllum   
  • (c) Artemisia vulgaris   
  • (d) Acalypha indica   

81, Match List-1 (Drug) with List-11 (Part used for the preparation of medicine) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1               List-11
{Drug)       (Part used for the preparation of medicine)

  • A. Arnica montana  1. Fresh flowering tops and leaves
  • B. Bryonia albs; 2. The bark
  • C. Cinchona 3. Fresh root before  flowering
  • D. Calendula 4. Entire fresh plant including root
  • Codes :
  • B C D
  • 3 2 4
  • B C D
  • 2 3 1
  • B C D
  • 2 3 4
  • B C D
  • 3 2 1

82. The drugs prepared from healthy tissues or organs or their secretions are called

  • (a) Nosodes   
  • (b) Imponderabilia   
  • (c) Sarcodes    
  • (d) Hormones   

83. Which drug contains conine as an active alkaloid ?

  • (a) Cinchona officinalis   
  • (b) Conium maculatum   
  • (c) Cannabis indica   
  • (d) Cocculus indicus   

84. Which one among the following contains Strychnine as an active constituent ?

  • (a) Stramonium   
  • (b) Stannum met   
  • (c) Ignatia   
  • (d) Nux vomica   

85. Which one of the following clinical features is NOT a feature of Plummer- Vinson’s Syndrome

  • (a) Clubbing of fingers 
    • (b) Glossitis   
  • (c) Iron deficiency anaemia
  • (d) Dysphagia

86. “Korsakofs Psychosis” is associated with

  • (a) schizophrenia   
  • (b) general paralysis of insane   
  • (c) thiamin deficiency  
  • (d) bi-polar mental illness   

87. Increased level of Serum amylase is of great diagnostic importance in

  • (a) acute Pancreatitis   
  • (b) Chronic hepatitis   
  • (c) Toxemia of pregnancy   
  • (d) Parotitis   

88. Match List-1 (Type of Haemorrhage) with List-11 (Characteristic) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 (Characteristic)              (Type of Haemorrhage)

  • A. Petechiae 1. Haemorrhage large enough to produce elevation
  • B. Purpura   2. Haemorrhage more than 5 mm in diameter
  • C. Echymosis 3. Haemorrhage 2-3 mm in diameter
  • D. Haematoma 4. Haemorrhage less than 1 mm in diameter

Codes :

  • (a) A B C’ D
  • 3 4 1 2
  • (b) A B C D
  • 4 3 2 1
  • (c) A B C D
  • 3 4 2 1
  • (d) A B C D
  • 4 3 1 2

89. Remedy for ‘Aversion to Onions’ in Kent ‘s Repertory is

  • (a) Veratrum alb   
  • (b) Thuja   
  • (c) Sabadilla   
  • (d) Sulphur 

90. “Sensation as if heart was suspended from left ribs**—this symptom in “Synthesis Repertory” is present in the chapter on

  • (a) Heart   
  • (b) Chest   
  • (c) Mind,   
  • (d) Generalities   

91. Consider the following medicines :

  • 1. Causticum   
  • 2. Lachesis   
  • 3. Colocynth   
  • 4. Magnesia Phosphorica   

Which of the above mentioned medicines are applicable in case of left-sided sciatica pain ?

  • (a) 1 and 3
  • (b) 1 and 4
  • (c) 2 and 3
  • (d) 2 and 4

92. In which section of Kent ‘s Repertory are the rubric involuntary urination and stool found ?

  • (a) Bladder   
  • (b) Urethra   
  • (c) Rectum   
  • (d) Stools 

93. In which section of Kent ‘s Repertory do you find the rubric “Lies with limbs abducted” ?

  • (a) Generalities   
  • (b) Extremities 
  • (c) Sleep   
  • (d) Mind   

94. Match List-1 (Symptoms) with List-11 (Medicines) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-1 (Symptoms)       List-11 (Medicines)

  • 1. Sep.
  • 2: Plat,
  • 3. Alum.
  • 4 .Bry
  • A. Children aversion to
  • B. Cannot look at blood
  • C. Business aversion to
  • D. Talks of business

Codes :

  • (a) A B C D
  • 2 3 1 4
  • (b) A B C D
  • 1 4 2 3
  • (c) A B C D
  • 2 4 1 3
  • (d) A B C D
  • I 3 2 4

95. What does the word quanto mean in reportorial language ?

  • (a) Personality   
  • (b) Cause   
  • (c) Seat of disease   
  • (d) Time 

96. To which chapter in Boenninghausen’s Repertory does chlorosis belong ?

  • (a) Sensation   
  • (b) Complaints   
  • (c) Blood   
  • (d) Circulation   

97. The  Doctrine of Analogy is the philosophical background of

  • (a) Knerr’s Repertory   
  • (b) Kent ‘s Repertory   
  • (c) Boerricke’s Repertory   
  • (d) Boenninghausen’s Repertory   

98. Prime importance to ‘Pathological Generals’ has been given by

  • (a) Boger   
  • (b) Boenninghausen   
  • (c) Kent   
  • (d) Gross   

99. To which sub-chapter in Boenning- hausen’s Repertory does ‘Abortion* belong ?

  • (a) Genitalia female   
  • (b) Sexual organs   
  • (c) Generalities   
  • (d) Menstruation   

100. How many  Grades do you find in Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic pocket book?

  •  (a) Three   (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six   

101. How many medicines are there in Boenninghausen’s Repertory ?

  • (a) 347   
  • (b) 438   
  • (c) 547   
  • (d) 638   

102. The total number of cards in Kishore’s Card Repertory is

  • (a) 9980   
  • (b) 9099 
  •  (c) 8899   
  • (d) 7980   

103. Choose the correct remedy for the rubric ‘Perspiration profuse, night, sitting quietly, while”

  • (a) Sambucus Nigra   
  • (b) Psorinum   
  • (c) Kali bichromicum   
  • (d) Calc. C   

104. “Cessat effectus cessat causa” is applicable to

  • (a) Isopathy   
  • (b) Homoeopathy   
  • (c) Naturopathy   
  • (d) Allopathy   

105. The symbol (a) over the number of , aphorism or in any other part of organon of medicine refers to which of the following ?

  • (a) Modifications in 6th edition of organon   
  • (b) Reference to Hahnemann’s lesser writing   
  • (c) Refers -to Hahnemann’s medicine of experience   
  • (d) Appendix of organon 

106. Dr. Hahnemann,’while proving the Peruvian Bark, took

  • (a) Four drachms of China twice a day   
  • (b) One drachm of China three times a day   
  • (c) Two drachms of China once a day   
  • (d) Four drachms of China once a day   

107. In the controlled and blind trial of drugs in the Homoeopathic Drug Proving Protocols, who is/are kept blind about the nature of the drug ?

  • (a) Prover
  • (b) Proving Master
  • (c) Prover and the Proving Master both
  • (d) Neither the Prover nor the Proving Master

108. The phrase ‘Aude Sapere’ was coined by

  • (a) Hahnemann   
  • (b) Horace   
  • (c) Huffland   
  • (d) Hippocrates   

109. When vital force is suddenly overpowered by the disease, which’ one of the following modes of treatment is useful ?

  • (a) Allopathy   
  • (b) Isopathy   
  • (c) Homoeopathy   
  • (d) Antipathy   

110. The first Nosode proved by Dr. C.F.S. Hahnemann was

  • (a) Medorrhinum   
  • (b) Parotidinum   
  • (c) Psorinum   
  • (d) Bacillinum   

111.Who is the worst patient among the following to treat ?

  • (a) Hypochondriac patient   
  • (b) Idiosyncratic patient   
  • (c) Hysterical patient   
  • (d) Non co-operative patient 

112. Causa Occasionalis means

  • (a) exciting cause and maintaining cause   
  • (b) maintaining cause   
  • (c) miasmatic cause   
  • (d) fundamental cause   

113. cure is possible by Homoepathy

  • (a) exciting and maintaining causes are removed   
  • (b) disease is removed   
  • (c) miasms are removed   
  • (d) idiosyncrasy is removed   

114. Name the chronic miasm of the following symptom ^Complaints better by abnormal discharges e.g. leucorrhoea, coryza etc. Discharges acrid; corroding the parts with characteristic odour.”

  • (a) Psora
  • (b) Tuberculous
  • (c) Sycotic
  • (d) Syphilitic

115. For the treatment of intermittent fever. Dr. Hahnemann has advised to prescribe to the patient

  • (a) highly potentised solution of Cinchona hark   
  • (b) Thuja occidentalis in crude form   
  • (c) Anti-psoric medicine in low potency   
  • (d) solution of sulphur   

116. The peculiar constitution which although otherwise healthy, possesses a disposition to be brought into a more or less morbid state by certain things which seem to produce no change in many other individuals*—this condition is called

  • (a) susceptibility
  • (b) indisposition
  • (c) diathesis
  • (d) idiosyncrasy

117. Psoro-sycotic patient is to be treated as

  • (a) mixed miasmatic case   
  • (b) non-miasmatic   
  • (c) pseudo psoric   
  • (d) pseudo sycotic   

118. Treatment of the so called mental or emotional diseases is mentioned in which aphorisms of organon of medicine ?

  • (a) 105-145   
  • (b) 185-203   
  • (c) 210-230   
  • (d) 212-232   

119. According to Dr. Hahnemann, Henning’s symptoms are

  • (a) reliable symptoms   
  • (b) unreliable symptoms   
  • (c) dynamic symptoms   
  • (d) manufactured symptoms   

120. Consider the following landmark books in Homoeopathy :

  • 1. Reine Arzneimittellelere   
  • 2. Fragmenta de viribus medica- mentorum positivis sive in sano Corpore Humano Observatis   
  • 3. Systematic Materia-Medica   
  • 4. Red lines Symptoms   

Which of the above are authored by Dr. Hahnemann ?

  • (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • (b) 2. 3 and 4
  • (c) 1 and 2.

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Comments

4 Responses so far.

  1. shilpi says:

    sir, plzz update the answers of these questions.

  2. RANJEET says:

    send answer key of this paper on my e- mail id

  3. pushpa bhagat says:

    sir please send the answer key to my e-mail id.

  4. neha mehta says:

    plz send ans key to 2004 2006 2002 papers at my email id

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