SUBSCRIBE TO OUR DAILY RSS FEED!
Facebook
Date posted: October 26, 2011

Maximum Marks : 100                                                             Maximum Time : 90 Minutes

1. Carrying any electronic gadgets like Pager, Cell Phone, Cordless Phone, Bluetooth, Calculator etc. to the Examination Hall amounts to malpractice may lead to debarring the candidate from writing exam.

2. Do not write/mark anything on the question paper booklet except Register Number. Any other markings made on the Question Booklet would be considered as Mal-practice may lead to debarring the candidate from writing exam.

3. Do not open the booklet during the first ten minutes after the 2nd  bell at 9.50, a.m. You should not look inside the Questions Booklet or start answering on the answer sheet during initial 10 minutes. Remove the seal on the side to open this booklet only after the 3rd  bell at 10.00 a.m. and start answering.

4. The initial 10 minutes are meant to enter your Name, Roll No., Question Booklet No., on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet. As the OMR sheet is designed for the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) system, special care should be taken to fill items accurately.

5. The question paper and OMR answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.

6. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions and 90 minutes given for answering. Any variation should be brought to the notice of the invigilator immediately.

7. During the 90 minutes:

(i) Read each question carefully.
(ii) Choose the most appropriate single answer from out of the four available alternatives under each question.
(iii) Completely darken the relevant oval with a blue or black ball-point pen against the question number on the answer sheet.
(iv) Any inadvertent drop/mark of pen/ink on the other oval marks makes the answer invalid.

For Example :

Q. No. 14: In which of the following, air borne transmission occurs ?
(a) French fever            (b) Kyasanur Forest disease
(c)   Q fever                  (d)  Relapsing fever

As the most appropriate single answer is option “c” you should darken the oval corresponding to the option “c” completely with a blue or black ball-point pen, on the OMR sheet once marked, any corrections using eraser, whitener or any sharp object is treated as malpractice.

8. For each correct answer, one mark will be awarded.
(a) There shall be no deduction of marks for wrong answer.
(b) If more than one alternative is marked, it will be considered as a wrong answer.
(c) Wrong answers carry no marks.

9. Rough work should be done only on the blank page at the end of the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the OMR sheet.

10. Please stop writing when the last bell at 11.30 a.m. Hand over the OMR sheet set to the invigilator who will separate the top sheet and will retain the same with him and return the duplicate copy to you to carry it home.

11. If you want to leave the Examination Hall earlier, you should hand over the question paper and the OMR answer sheet to the invigilator and collect the question paper and the duplicate copy of the OMR sheet at the end of the scheduled dosing time 11.30 a.m.

1. HIV virus attacks

  • a) Helper T cells             b) Suppressor T cells
  • c) Cytotoxic T cells         d) Memory cells

2. Auerbach’s plexus of GIT are concerned with

  • a) Secretion of GIT
  • b) Motor functions of GIT
  • c) Above all
  • d) None

3. The respiratory centers are situated in

  • a) Pons and medulla       b) Cerebellum
  • c) Hypothalamus            d) Thalamus .

4. Athletes show resting bradycardia due to

  • a) increase vagal tone
  • b) decrease vagal tone
  • c) increased sympathetic stimulation
  • d) none

5. Renin – Angiotensin mechanism associated with

  • a) Fall in BP       b) Rise in BP
  • c) Hypertension d) None

6. Misanthropic wants to fly away from his own family, mistrustful are the symptom of

  • a) Hepar sulph   b) Fluoric acid
  • c) Bryonia         d) Lycopodium

7. Atrophic rhinitis is the main symptom in

  • a) Lemna Minor  b) Ledum
  • c) Mer. sol.        d) Kali Carb

8. Milk in the breast instead of menses is the symptom of

  • a) Silicea           b) Pulsatilla
  • c) Phytolacca     d) Mercurius sol

9. The characteristic tongue of Ipecac is

  • a) clean             b) thickly coated
  • c) mapped         d) red tipped

10. Calcarea carb is adapted to constitution of

  • a) Leucophlegmatic        b) Scrofulous
  • c) Phlegmatic                 d) None of these

11. Systematic Alphabetic Repertory of Homoeopathic Remedy Doctrine

  • a) Woss             b) Rucket
  • c) Jahr              d) Hempel

12. The methods of cross repertorisation are

  • a) Rearranging totality    b) Integrated approach
  • c) All of the above          d) None of the above

13. Stimulare is a

  • a) New Repertory
  • b) New Software Programme
  • c) New Drug
  • d) New method of prescription

14. ‘Dolphin’ is related to

  • a) Repertory
  • b) Software programme
  • c) Text book in repertory
  • d) None of the above

15. Miasmatic Repertory by R.P Patel was published on

  • a) 1995    b) 1996
  • c) 2006    d) 2000

16. Chronic asthma in summer is a feature of

  • a) Psorinurn       b) Medorrhinum
  • c) Bovista          d) Syphillinum

17. Fear of being assassinated is in

  • a) Lac Can         b) Aurum Met
  • c) Zincurn          d) Plumbum Met

18. 1st  Edition of Organon book published in 1810 by

  • a) Gillbert          b) Lord Bacon
  • c) Sarkar           d) Arnold Dresden

19. Hyoscyamus cough is characterized by

  • a) Nervous cough
  • b) Aggravated by lying down when head touches the pillow
  • c) Caused by elongated uvula
  • d) All of these

20. In Cuprum met convulsion, the aura begins in

  • a) Lower extremities
  • b) Upper extremities
  • c) Abdomen
  • d) Face

21 . BTPB is published in

  • a) 1896
  • b) 1897
  • c) 1846
  • d) 1833

22. Headquarters of WHO situated in

  • a) USA
  • b) Geneva
  • c) Tokyo
  • d) New Delhi

23. Incubation period of measles

  • a) 2 weeks
  • b) 3 weeks
  • c) 4 weeks
  • d) 5 weeks

24. Vector of Chikungunya

  • a) Housefly
  • b) Mosquito
  • c) Tick
  • d) Cockroach

25. The optimum level of total cholesterol should be less than

  • a) 100 mg/dl
  • b) 200 mg/dl
  • c) 250 mg/dl
  • d) 350 mg/dl

26. Guernsey’s Card Repertory was based on

  • a) BBCR        b) Lippe’s Repertory
  • c) BTPB         d) Kent’s Repertory

27. ‘Quis’ means

  • a) Diseases    b) Location
  • c) Modality     d) Personality

28. “Quando’ means

  • a) Location
  • b) Personality
  • c) Modality
  • d) Time

29. The abbreviation CoCl

  • a) Coccus cacti
  • b) Cocculus
  • c) Coccainuem
  • d) Coca

30. ‘Fragmenta Deviribus; Medicarnentorus Postious’ was published in

  • a) 1806
  • b) 1810
  • c) 1805
  • d) 1811

31. Treatment of Indisposition

  • a) Slight alteration of diet and regimen
  • b) Constitutional remedy
  • c) Acute remedy
  • d) Anti Miasmatic

32. Test to find out true mental disease and mental disease of doubtful origin is given in

  • a) 93                 b) 210
  • c) 224               d) 230

33. Reason for Homeopathic aggravation

  • a) Massive dose             b) Drug abuse
  • c) Small dose                 d) Dose is riot sufficiently small enough

34. § no. 4 of Organon of Medicine deals with

  • a) Preserver of health     b) Unprejudice observer
  • c) Science of hygiene     d) Preventive medicine

35. Glycated Hemoglobin is a. combination of

  • a) Carbon dioxide + HbA             b) Ferric iron + HbA
  • c) Glucose + HbA                       d) Glycine + HbA

36. Homoeopathy and Child Care was published by

  • a) Dr. S.K. Tiwari           b) R.P.Patil
  • c) Sivaraman                 d) None of the above

37. The word ‘rubric’ originated from

  • a) Latin             b) German
  • c) Greek            d) English

38. Gentry Repertory consists of f6flowing volumes

  • a) 4      b) 3
  • c) 5       d) 6

39. Knerr’s Repertory was published in

  • a) 1898             b) 1896
  • C) 1996             d) 1847

40. The Repertory which is related to clinical repertories

  • a) Bell’s Diarrhoea
  • b) Kent’s Repertory
  • c) Murphy’s Repertory
  • d) Synthesis

41. All are features of Vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT

  • a) Xerophthalmia
  • b) Osteomalacia
  • c) Follicular hyperkeratosis
  • d) Keratomalacia

42. Chest pain due to pericarditis is

  • a) Precipitated by exertion
  • b) Radiated to left arm
  • c) Relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
  • d) Associated with sweating

43.) The ‘a’ wave in the Jugular venous tracing is due to

  • a) Ventricular Diastole    b) Ventricular Systole
  • c) Atrial Diastole                        d) Atrial Systole

44. Continuous murmur is heard in

  • a) Atnal Septal Defect     b) Ventricular Septal Defect
  • c) Pallet’s Tetroiogy        d) Patent-Ductus Arteriosus

45. The part of Electro cardiogram that corresponds with Ventricular depolarisation is

  • a) P wave          b) QRS complex
  • c) PR interval     d) ST-segment

46. P wave of ECG is due to

  • a) Atrial repolarization                b) Atria depolarization
  • c) Ventricular depolarization        d) Ventricular repolarization

47. Concise Repertory of Homoeopathic  Medicine was published by

  • a) Phatak          b) Carke
  • c) Murphy          d) Schroyens

48. Phatak’s Repertory was published on

  • a) 1963             b) 1964
  • c) 1974             d) 1984

49. Roger von Zandoort is associated with

  • a) Complete repertory
  • b) Repertorium Universale
  • c) All the above
  • d) None of the above

50. Phoenix Repertory is published by

  • a) J.P.S. Bakshi              b) S.P.S. Bakshi
  • c) D. Bakshi                   d) None of the above

51. Calcutta Homoeopathic Medical College was established by Dr. D.N.Roy and

  • a) Rajendralal Dutt         b) Diwan Jai Chand
  • c) Father Muller              d) Dr. Pratapchandra Majumdar

52. Father of Indian Homoeopathy

  • a) Dr. Pradeep C. Majumdar        b) B. C, Roy
  • c) Rajendralal Dutt                          d) D.     Roy

53. “Medicine of Experience” by Samuel Hahnemann in

  • a) 1810             b) 1847
  • c) 1828             d) 1805

54. 6th  edition of Organon of Medicine published in

  • a) 1809             b) 1804
  • c) 1790             d) 1921

55. Title of 1st  edition of Organon book

  • a) Medicine of Experience
  • b) My Experiments With Truth
  • c) Fragmenta de Virubus
  • d) Organon of Rational Art of Healing

56. Thyrotoxicosis is characterised by the following features, EXCEPT

  • a) Tachycardia               b) Constipation
  • c) Tremor                      d) Weightless

57. Hypertension is a feature of all the following EXCEPT

  • a) Renal Artery stenosis              b) Pheochromo cytoma
  • c) Addison’s disease                     d) Cushing’s syndrome

58. Trousseau’s sign is characteristic of

  • a) Hyper thyroidism        b) Hypo thyroidism
  • c) Tetanus                            d) Tetany

59. Ptosis is caused by paralysis of

  • a) III Cranial Nerve
  • b) IV Cranial Nerve
  • c) V Cranial Nerve
  • d) V1 Cranial Nerve

60. First heart sound occurs due to

  • a) opening of the AV valve
  • b) closure of the semilunar valve
  • c) closure of the AV valve
  • d) opening of the semilunar valve

61. Kreosoturn is inimical to

  • a) Carbo veg                 b) Kali carb
  • c) Nux vomica.           d) Phosphorous

62. Dreams that she is drinking

  • a) Arsenic,         b) Medorrhinum
  • c) Phosphorus    d)  All the above

63. Fear of financial ruin

  • a) Kali phos       b) Calc fluor
  • c) Calc phos       d) Natrurn phos

64. Nodular swellings in joints is the symptom of

  • a) Bryonia              b) Conium
  • c) Lithium Carb  d) Allium Cepa

5. Diarrhoea of green watery frothy like scum on frogs pond is a symptom of

  • a) Mag Mur        b) Mag Carb
  • c) Arnica           d) Aconite

66. Birth year of J.T. Kent

  • a) 2nd  July 1843             b) 10th April 1847
  • c) 31st March 1849          d) 1st  1847

67. “Chronic Diseases” by Samuel Hahnemann  published in the year

  • a) 1804             b) 1828
  • c) 1905             d) 1811

68. Author of ‘Repertory of the Antipsoric Medicines

  • a) C.H. Allen
  • b) AllenT.F.
  • c) Dr. C.M.F. Von Boenninghausen
  • d) Jahr

69 “Encyclopedia of Pure Materia Medica” belongs to

  • a) H.C. Allen       b) Lippe
  • c) 114 TF. Allen  d) Hahnemann

70. Who proved Lachesis

  • a) Hahnemann
  • b) Dr. C. Hering
  • c) Clarke J.H.
  • d) Boger

7 1. In tonsillitis purple colour of throat beginning on left side is a symptom of

  •  a) Ruta                b) Conium
  • C) Lachesis        d) Hepar Sulph

72. Complaints of Fluoric acid are better by

  • a) Warmth                           b) Open air
  • c) Cold application          d) All of these

73. Toothache aggravation by drawing cold air into mouth or cold drinks; teeth turn black, crumble and decay on edges. Drug is

  • a) Mercurius      b) Mezerium
  • c) Staphysagria  d) None of these

74. Headache or neuralgia begin lightly, increase gradually to the highest point and then gradually decline seen in

  • a) Kali bichromicum        b) Pulsatilla
  • c) Stannum met             d) None of these

75. Malignant Hypertension occurs in

  • a) Diabetes Mellitus        b) Heart Disease
  • c) Renal Disease            d) None of above

76. Number of § in the 6t’ edition of Organon of Medicine

  • a) 219               b) 258
  • c) 291               d) 286

77. Treatment of Mental diseases comes under

  • a) 269-271                    b) 210 – 230
  • c) 252-256                     d) 245-251

78. Importance of PQRS symptoms explained in the § number

  • a) 2 6                b)153
  • c) 270               d) 5

79.Samuel Hahnemann has mentioned about obvious cause in the § number

  • a) 93                 b)39
  • c)36                 d)63

80. Idiosyncrasies has been explained in the § number

  • a) 117               b)07
  • c)143                d)153

81. Lead I + Lead III = Lead II

  • a) Einthoven’s law
  • b) Marey’s law
  • c) Starling’s law
  • d) Landsteiner’s law

82. Keratomalacia – a feature of

  • a) Vitamin A deficiency
  • b) Vitamin K deficiency
  • c) Vitamin C deficiency
  • d) Vitamin D deficiency

83. ADH – a secretion of

  • a) Adrenal cortex               b) Anterior pituitary
  • c) Posterior pituitary       d) Pancreas

84. Semicircular canal and otolithic organs of ear are concerned with

  • a) Hearing         b) Equilibrium
  • c) Olfaction        d) None

85. Devil’s Dung is the common name of’

  • a) Baptisia tinctoria        b) Asafoetida
  • C)Melilotus                    d) Helleborus niger

86. Title page of 1st  edition of Organon has the words from a Poe m by

  • a) Arnold           b) Christian Gellert
  • C)Stapf,            d) Dudgeon

87. Number of § in 2nd  edition of Organon

  • a) 292               b) 315
  • c) 271               d) 319

88. The 3rd edition of Organon had number of §

  • a) 317         b) 320
  • c) 315       d) 292

89. Number of § in 5th edition of Organon

  • a) 292            b) 294
  • c) 320         d) 271

90. ‘Novum Organum’ was written by

  • a) Lord Dalhousie           b) Lord Bacon
  • c) Lord Mountbatton        d) R. E. Dudgeon

91. Specific enzyme detected in blood in Acute MI is

  • a) CKMB            b) SGOT
  • c) SGPT             d) Aldosterone

92. Koilonychia is seen in

  • a) Vit. C deficiency         b) Malignancy
  • c) Folic acid deficiency    d) Iron deficiency anemia

93. Faecal-oral route of spread of infection is found in

  • a) Hepatitis-B     b) Hepatitis-C
  • c) Hepatitis-D     d) Hepatitis-E

94. Clinical finding NOT associated with Typhoid fever

  • a) Splenomegaly                              b) Rose-spots
  • c) Erythema marginatum            d) Abdominal distention

95. Bradycardia is seen in the following situations EXCEPT

  • a) Hyper thyroidism
  • b) Obstructive Jaundice
  • c ) Hypothyroidism
  • d) Complete Heart Block

96. Which of the following is NOT a feature of systemic Lupus Erythematosis ?

  • a) Malar Rash    b) Leucoc_ytosis
  • c) Serositis        d) Anti-DNA antibodies

97. HBsAG is found to be associated with

  • a) Poly Myositis                   b) Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • c) Polyarteritis Nodosa    d) SLE

98. Hyperpigmentation is NOT a  feature of

  • a) Pheochromo cytoma
  • b) Haemochronatosis
  • c) Addison’s diseases
  • d) Nelson’s syndrome

99. Flag sign is characteristic of

  • a) Psoriasis                        b) Leprosy
  • c) Kwashiorkor               d) Malnutrition

100. `Kent’s Repertorium Genrale was published by

  • a) P. Schmidt
  • b) Jost Kunzili
  • c) P. Sivaraman
  • d) R.P.Patel

This is a question paper of  Post Graduate Homoeopathy Entrance Test (AHPNP) 2011 conducted by Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences. Karnataka

  We are thankful to Dr.Ram Jyothis & Vivek Sakthidharan for this question booklet

Download answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/rguhs-md-2011-key.pdf  

All rights reserved @ similima

Comments

4 Responses so far.

  1. Dr Prashant says:

    Ans of ques no. 16 is (d) syphilinum in the corrected key it is wrong…kindly note,…

  2. Dr Prashant says:

    ans for q.no. 29 is coccoulus……BBCR…….

  3. Dr Prashant says:

    q.no.69 ans is (c) T F ALLEN………

  4. Dr. Prasanta Sarkar says:

    please mention the seats for candidate out side of this state in rajib Gandhi University for MD admission.

1. Comments will be moderated. Please use a genuine email ID and provide your name, to   avoid rejection.
2. Comments that are abusive, personal, incendiary or irrelevant cannot be published.
3. Please write complete sentences. Do not type comments in all capital letters, or in all   lower case letters, or using abbreviated text. (example: u cannot substitute for you, d is not   'the', n is not 'and')


*

Comment moderation is enabled. Your comment may take some time to appear.