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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1.The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2.The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3.The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
4.If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5.The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6.Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7.The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8.Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9.Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .
10.Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11.Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
12.Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13.No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14.Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.


1. The 'QRS' complex in the TOG* Represents :
(A) Atrial Depolarisation.
(C) Atrial Repolarisatibn.
(B) Ventricular Depolarisation.
(D) Ventricular Repolarisation.

2. Radio-femoral Delay occurs in :
(A) Coarctation of Aorta.  (B) ASD.
(C) VSD.    (D) PDA.

3. Eisen Mongers Syndrome occurs in :
(A) PDA.(B) Heart Failure.
(C) M.S.(D) A.S.

4. 'a' wave in the JVP corresponds to :
(A) Ventricular contraction.
(B) Ventricular filling.
(C) Atrial filling.
(D) Atrial contraction.

5. Malignant Hypertension occurs in :
(A) Diabetes Mellitus.
(B) Heart Disease.
(C) Renal Disease.
(D) None of above.

6. Specific enzyme detected in blood in Acute MI is :
(A) CK.M.B. . (B) SGOT.
(C) SGPT. (D) Aldosterone.

7. In respiratory distress syndrome of new born (RDS):
(A) Cilia is devoid. (B) Hucus is collected.
(C) Surfactant in Alveoli is Reduced. (D) None of above.

8. Chronic Corpulmonale means :
(A) Heart failure.
(B) Respiratory Failure.
(C) Heart Disease secondary to lung Disease.
(D) Primary heart disease.

9. If the unconscious patient is unarousable by all external stimuli it is caused :
(A) Stupor. (B) Deep sleep.
(C) Dead. (D) Coma.

10. Koilonychia is seen in :
(A) Vit. C deficiency. (B) Malignancy,
(C) Folic acid deficiency. (D) Iron Deficiency Anemea.

11. For psoriasis palmaris important medicine is :
(A) Sulphur. (B) Arsiodide.
(C) Selenium. (D) Lycopodium.

12. Stimulates the growth of Epithelium on ulcerated surfaces and found useful in Gastric and Duodenal ulcer :
(A) Symphytum.  (B) Sulphur.
(C) Calcare carb. (D) Arnica.

13. In stomatitis, deep longitudinal cracks on tongue and excessive flow of saliva runs out of mouth when sleeping :
(A) Syphilinum. (B) Mercsol.
(C) Nitric Acid. (D) Muriatic Acid.

14. In Duodenal ulcer canine Hunger and tendency to eat far beyond the capacity to digest:
(A) Nuxuomica. (B) Abies Canadensisi
(C) Abies Nigra. (D) Sulphur.

16. Best Tonic for Debility after Exhausting Diseases :
(A) China. (B) Selenium.
(C) Avena Sativa. (D) Psorinum.

16. In Hyperchlor hydria with aversion to milk and fat food :
(A) Pulsatilla.   (B) Robinia
(C) Acid Sulph. (D) Calcarea carb.

17. Dry Hacking cough expelling an offensive breath from lungs :
(A) Pulsatilla. ' (B) Kali Iodide.
(C) Capscicum. (D) Nitric Acid.

18. Gastralgia relieved with eating with hepatic symptoms :
(A) Podophyllum. (B) Chelidonium.
(C) Anacardium. , (D) Mercsol.

19. Angina pectoris with sensation as if the heart ceased to beat then starts very suddenly :
(A) Cactus. (B) Digitalis.
(C) Liliumtig. (D) Convallaria Majalis.

20. Painful cracks of the corner of the mouth with cancer of stomach :
(A) Nitric acid. (B) 'Bismuth.
(C) Antim crud. (D) Cundurango.

21. Renal colic with pain in small of back before Hicturation and ceases after flow :
(A) Berberis vulg. (B) Lycopodium.
(C) Pulsatilla. (D) Nuxvomica.

22. Asthma in children as a constitutional remedy in sycotic subjects :
(A) Natrum sulph. (B) Antimtart.
(C) Silicea. (D) Heparsulph.

23. Rheumatism associated with urticarea like eruptions :
(A) Rhustox. . (B) Graphites.
(C) Urtica urens. (D) Dulcamera.

24. In Apoplexy with Headache and sensation of a lump of Ice on the vertex :
(A) Glonoine. . (B) Belladonna.
(C) Gelsemium. (D) veratrum alb.

25. An important remedy for pericarditis is :
(A) Kalicarb. (B) Apis mel.
(C) Spigelia. (D) Bryonea.

26. A medicine for post Herpetic Neuralgia :
(A) Mezereum.  (B) Sulphur.
(C) Bryonea. (D) Phosphorus.

27. Rheumatism of the Right wrist:
(A) Sulphur. (B) Viola odorata.
(C) Bryonea. (D) BezoicAcid.

28. In plica polomca :
(A) Mercsol. (B) Natrum Mur.
(C) Vinca Minor. (D) Sulphur.

29. A medicine tor rectal cancer :
(A) Ruta. (B) Sulphur.
(C) Aloes. . (D) Mercaol.

30. Epistaxis painless with Bright Red Blood :
(A) Nitric Acid. (B) Sabina.
(C) MillefoUum. (D) Secale cor.

31. Faecal-oral route of spread of infection is found in :
(A) Hepatitis-B. (B) Hepatitis-C
(C) Hepatitis-D. (D) Hepatitis-E.

32. Clinical finding not associated with Typhoid fever :
(A) Splenomegaly. (B) Rose-spots.
(C) .Erythema marginatum. (D) Abdominal distention.

33. Which of the following is not an AIDS denning condition ?
(A) Oesophageal candidiasis. (B) Disseminated Herpeszoster.
(C) Cytomegalo virus Retinitis. (D) Kaposi's Sarcoma.

34. Bradycardia is seen in the following situations except:
(A) Hyper thyroidism. (B) Obstructive Jaundice.
(C) Hypothyroidism. (D) Complete Heart Block.

35. What is wrong about Kweshiorkor ?
(A) Severe wasting. (B) Generelised oedemas.
(C) Low serum Albumin. (D) Moon face.

36. All are features of vitamin A deficiency except:
(A) Xerophthalmia. (B) Osteomalacia.
(C) Follicular hyperkeratosis. (D) Keratomalacia.

37. Chest pain due to pericarditis is :
(A) Precipitated by exertion.
(B) Radiated to left arm.
(C) Relieved by sitting up and leaning forward.
(D) Associated with sweating.

38. The *a* wave in the Jugular venous tracing is due to :
(A) Ventricular Diastole. (B) Ventricular systole.
(C) Atrial Diastole. (D) Atrial systole.

39. Continuous murmur is heard in :
(A) Atrial septal Defect. - (B) Ventricular septal Defect.
(C) Pallet's tetrology. (D) Patent-Duetus Arteriosus.

40. The part of Electro cardiogram that corresponds with Ventricular depolarisation is :
(A) Pwave. (B) QRS complex.
(C) PR interval. (D) ST-segment.

41. The parameter is Liver function Test that is suggestive of acute parenchymal liver damage is :
(A) led serum Albumin. (B) fed Alkaline phosphatase.
(C) "TedSGPT. (D) Ted Acid phosphatase.

42. Massive splenomegaly can be caused by all of the following except:
(A) Typhoid fever. (B) Chronic ryeloid Leukaem*s.
(C) Kala Azar. (D) Chronic Malaria.

43. What is not true regarding peripheral cyanosis ?
(A) It is produced by increased extraction of oxygen from the stagnant blood by the tissues.
(B) The extremities are blue and warm.
(C) The earlobes and tip of nose are usually cyanosed.
(D) It is usually associated with hypotension.

44. Commonest cause of community acquired pneumonia is :
(A) Streptococcus Pneumoniae. (B) Staphylococcus Aureus.
(C) Haemophilus Influenzes. (D) Klebsilella Pneumoniae.

46. Predisposition to bronehogenie carcinoma is seen with :
(A) Silicosis. . (B) Byssinosis.
(C) Coal worker's Pneumoconiosis. (D) Asbeetosis.

46. Tension Pneumothorax causes all the following clinical signs, except:
(A) Severs dyspnoea. (B) Displacement of Mediastinum.
(C) increased vocal Resonance. (D) Hyper resonant Percussion note.

47. Which of the following" statements is not true of Type 1 Diabetes Melletus ?
(A) They are usually obese.
(B) Absolute insulin deficiency.
(C) Polyuria, polydipsis and nocturia are frequent.
(D) More prone for keto acidosis.

48. Thyrotoxicosis is characterised by the following features, except:
(A) Tachycardia. (B) Constipation.
(C) Tremor. (D) Weightless.

49. Hypertension is a feature of all the following except:
(A) Renal Artery stenosis. (B) Pheochromo cytoma.
(C) Addison's Disease. (D) Cushing's syndrome

50. Trousseau's sign is characteristic of:
(A) Hyper Hyroidism. (B) Hypothyroidism.
(C) Tetanus. (D) Tetany.

61. Ptosis is caused by paralysis of:
(A) III Cranial Nerve. (B) IV Cranial Nerve.
(C) V Cranial Nerve. (D) VI Cranial Nerve.

52. Short-shuffling gait is characteristic of:
(A) Parkinsonism. (B) Cerebellar dysfunction.
(C) Sensory Ataxia. (D) Proximal ryopathy.

53. All are characteristic features of Haemolysis, except:
(A) Reticulocytosis. (B) Indirect hyperbilirubinemia.
(C) Absent Urobilinogers in urine. (D) Polychromasia.

54. Spasticity is a feature of:
(A) Pyramidal lesion. (B) Extra pyramidal lesion.
(C) Cerebellar lesion. (D) LMN lesion.

65. Which of the following is not a feature of systemic Lupus Erythematosis ?
(A) Malar Rash. (B) Leucocytosis.
(C) Serositis. (D) Anti-DNA antibodies.

56. A 22 year old primi gravida on her 7th day of full term normal delivery, developed headache,
vomiting, convulsion and weakness both legs. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Thrombosis of the Middle cerebral Artery.
(B) Intracranial haemorrhage. .
(C) Brain Abscess.
(D) Superior sagital sinus thrombosis.

57. HBsAG is found to be associated with :
(A) Poly myositis. (B) Rheumatoid Arthritis.
(C) Polyarteritis Nodosa. (D) SLE.

58. HaemophiIia-A is :
(A) X linked dominant. (B) Mucosal bleeding is a common presentation.
(C) Due to factor IX deficiency. (D) Manifested only in males.

59. Features ofcushing's syndrome include the following, except:
(A) Centripetal obisity. (B) Hypotension.
(C) Striae. (D) Osteoporosis.

60. Murphy's sign is characteristic of:
(A) Acute pancreatitis. (B) Intestinal obstruction.
(C) Acute cholecystitis. (D) Acute pericarditis.

61. Non pulsatile distended neek views are likely to be due to :
(A) Congestive Heart failure. (B) Portal Hypertension.
(C) Pericardial effusion. (D) Mediastinal obstruction.

62. Koilonychia is seen m :
(A) Wilsdn's Disease. (B) Iron deficiency Anaemia.
(C) Haemochromatosin. 0) Megaloblastic Anaemia.

63. Pyogenic Meningitis in Pre-School Children—the commonest organism is :
(A) Haemophilus Influenza. (B) Group B streptococci.
(C) Neisseria Meningitidis. (D) E.Coli.

64. Features of furidan poisoning include tne following, except:
(A) Ted bronchial secretion. (B) Dialated pupils.
(C) Fasciculations. (D) Altered consciousness.

65. Haemetemesis is commonly caused by all of the following except:
(A) Duodenal ulcer. (B) Carcinoma stomach.
(C) Liver Abscess. (D) Erosive gastritis.

66. Incubation period of chicken pox is :
(A) 1—7 days. (B) 7—14 days.
(C) 14-21 days. (D) 21-28 days.

67. Features of Ted Intra cranial tension include all of the following except:
(A) Head Ache. (B) Vomiting.
(C) Hyper tension. (D) Tachycardia.

68. Lumbar puncture is contra indicated in :
(A) Meningitis. (B) Subarachnoid Haemorrhage.
(C) Guillain Barre syndrome. (D) Ted Intracranial tension.

69. Hyperpigmentation is not a feature of:
(A) Pheochromo cytoma. (B) Haemochronatosis.
(C) Addison's Diseases. (D) Nelson's syndrome.

70. Death during first hour of acute Myocardial infarction is mostly caused by
(A) Pulmonary oedema.  (B) Arrhythmias
(C) Papillary muscle-rupture. (D) Thrombo embolism

71. Flag sign is characteristic to :
(A) Psoriasis.  (B) Leprosy
(C) Kwashiorkor. (D) Malnutrition

72. Bitot's spots seen in :
(A) Vit A'Deficiency. (B) Vit 'C'Deficiency.
(C) Both A and B. (D) None of above.

73. Anti-Sterility vitamin is :
(A) Vit B.   (B) Vit C.
(C) Vit D.  (D) Vi tE.

74. The function of selenium is :
(A) An enzyme.
(B) To increase sperm motility.
(C) Both A and B.
(D) None of above.

76. In Diphtheria sudden death occurs due to :
(A) Tachy cardia.
(B) Atrial Fibrillation.
(C) Ventricular Fibrillation.
(D) None of above.

76. Complication of Cholera is :
(A) Hypokalemia.  (B) Fever.
(C) Dehydration.  (D) None of above.

77. Kaposi'e sarcoma is associated with :
(A) Lymphoma. (B) Hepatoma.
(C) AIDS.  (D) None of above.

78. Kala-Azar is caused by :
(A) Leishmania.
(B) Streptococci.
(C) E.Coli.
(D) Leishmania Donovani.

79. Kussmaul's respiration occurs in :
(A) Respiratory failure. (B) Metabolic Acidosis.
(C) Cardiac failure. . (D) Headinjury.

80. Leukoplakia is a : -
(A) Vit deficiency. (B) Thickened Mucous Membrane.
(C) Cancerous condition. (D) Pro cancerous condition.

81. Duodenal ulcer is more common in Blood Group :
(A) AB. (B) 0.
(C) A. (D) B.

82. Virchow's sign is a feature of:
(A) Carcinoma stomach. (B) Hepatoma.
(C) Renal cell carcinoma. (D) Tuberculosis.

83. Cullen's sign is a feature of:
(A) Hepatitis. (B) Chronic pancreatitis.
(C) Acute Pancreatitis. (D) None of above.

84. Acute complication of Diapetes is :
(A) Coma. (B) Blindness.
(C) Diabetic Keto Acidosis and Coma.(D) Heart Failure.

85. Non metastatic Endocrine Manifestation of Malignancy is :
(A) Pruritis. (B) Hypercalcemia.
(C) Both A and B. (D) None of above.

86. Proximal inter phalangeal joints are affected in :
(A) Rheumatic fever. (B) Rheumatoid artritis.
(C) Psoriatoc Arthritis. (D) Osteoarthritis.

87. Erythematous, Photo sensitive, Butterfly Rash affecting the cheeks and nose are Diagnostic to :
(A) RA. (B) OA.
(C) SLE. (D) None of the above.

88. Replacement fibrosis of the lung parenchyma occurs in :
(A) Tuberculosis. (B) Pnumoconiosis.
(C) Pulmonary oedema. (D) Lung Abscess.

89. Permanent Dialatation and Distortion of Bronchi is called :
(A) Emphysema. (B) Bronchitis.
(C) Fibrosis of Lung. (D) Bronchiectasis.

90. Clubbing of the fingers is seen in :
(A) Tuberculosis. (B) Lung abscess.
(C) Chronic bronchitis. (D) Punmothorax.

91. Gross enlargement of spleen occurs in :
(A) Chronic Myeloid leukemia. (B) Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia.
(C) Acute Lymphatic Leukemia. (D) Anemia.

92. Painless Asymmetrical circumscribed enlargement of lymphnodes of Rubbery consistency is seen
in:
(A) Lymphoma. (B) Tuberculosis.
(C) Malignancy. (D) Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

93. Severe Bleeding occurs when the platelet falls below :
(A) 1 lakh/cmm. (B) 50,000 per cmm.
(C) 20,000 per cmm. (D) 1.5 lakhs/cmm.

94. Presence of RBC cast in urine is indicative of:
(A) A/C Glomerulo nephritis. (B) A/C pyeno nephritis.
(C) Nephrotic Syndrome. (D) Renal failure.

95. Electrical reaction of the affected muscles are not altered in :
(A) LMN lesion. (B) UMN lesion.
(C) Cerebellar lesion. (D) Autonomic nervous system lesion.

96. The commonest cause of intracranial haemorrhage is :
(A) Rupture of aneurysm. (B) Diabetes Mellitus.
(C) Hypertension. (D) Trauma.

97. Verruca vulgaris is caused by :
(A) RNA virus. (B) DNA virus.
(C) Both A and B. (D) Papilloma virus.

98. The commonest form of MND is :
(A) Amyotrophic Lateral sclerosis. (B) Western Pacific form.
(C) Progressive Bulbar palsy. (D) Primary Lateral Sclerosis.

99. Bell's Palsy is a :
(A) UMN type of facial palsy. (B) LMN type of facial palsy.
(C) Both UMN and LMN type. (D) None of above.

100. Common psycho somatic respiratory disorder is :
(A) Bronchitis. (B) Emphysema.
(C) Bronchial Asthma. (D) Pneumonia.

                            Answer Key published by KPSC