INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1.The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2.The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3.The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
4.If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5.The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6.Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7.The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8.Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9.Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .
10.Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11.Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
12.Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13.No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14.Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1.Astigmatism is corrected by using ____ lens
(A) Concave   (B) Convex.
(C) Cylindrical (D) None of the above.

2. Auto regulation of blood flow is not seen in not seen in :
(A) Heart (B) Liver.
-(C) Brain (D) Kidney.

3.Which of the following is present in pancreatic secretion :
(A) Pepsin (B) Renin.
(C) Trypsin (D) Enteropeptidase.

4. Which of the following is a dietary fiber :
(A)Collagen   (B) Pectin.
(C) Keratin  (D) Elastin.

5. Anatomical capacity of human urinary bladder (in ml) is :
(A) 500 (B) 1000.
(C) 1500 (D) 2000.

6.Motor speech area is
(A) Wernicke's area (B) Angular gyms.
CC) Arcuate fasciculus (D) Broca's area.

7 Which is function of albumin :
(A) Maintain plasma oncotic preassure
(B) maintain plasma hydrostaic pressure.
(C) Coagulatioon of blood
(D) Immunity

8. All the following can be measured by simple spirometry except:
(A) Inspiratory reserve volume (B) Expiratory reserve volume.
(C Residual volume. (D) Tidal volume.

9. In athlets bradycardia is because '
(A) Becreased sympathetic tone. (B) Increased vagal tone.
(C) 'Decreased vagal tone (D) Increased sympathetic tone.

10. Testes does not produce :
(A) Estradiol. (B) Testosterpne.
(C) Fructose. (D) Inhibin.

11. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult (in mosm/L) is :
(A) 250—270. (B) 270—290.
(C) 300-320. (D) 320—340.

12. Which of the following can be used as a screening test for haemophilia ?
(A) Clotting time. (B) Bleeding time.
(C) Prothrombin time. (D) Partial thromboplastin time.

13. Following are features of hyperthyroidism except:
(A) Tachycardia. (B) Exophthalmos.
(C) Increased apetite. (D) Old intolerence.

14. Spasticity indicates :
(A) Cerebellar disease. (B) Autonomic imbalance.
(C) Lower motor neuron injury. (D) Upper motor neuron injury.

15. Normal level ofcreatinine in serum (in mg %) is :
(A) 0.6—1.2. (B) 1.2—2.
(C) 2—2.6. (D) 2.6—3.2

16. Mean arterial pressure refers to :
(A) Systolic pressure + Diastolic pressure/2
(B) Diastolic pressure/2
(C) Systolic pressure + Pulse pressure/2
(D) Diastolic pressure + Pulse pressure/3
 
17. In addison's disease, the following are seen except:
(A) Hyponatremia. (B) Hypokalemia.
(C) Hypoglycemia. (D) Low blood pressure.

18. The most important anion in respiration is :
(A) Chloride. (B) Phosphate,
(C) Sulphate. (D) Bicarbonate.

19. Menopausal hot flushes are due to :
(A) Decreased oestrogen. (B) Decreased progesterone.
(C) LH surge. (D) FSH surge.

20. The normal glomerular filtration rate (in ml/mt) is :
(A) 100. (B) 125.
(C) 150. (D) 175.

21. Maximum enzyme activity is observed at:
(A) Acidic pH. (B) Optimum pH.
(C) Alkaline pH. (D) None of the above.

22. An example for a ketogenic aminoacid :
(A) Leucine. (B) Isoleucine.
(C) Phenyl alanine. (D) Valine.

23. Active site of enzyme :
(A) Have a rigid shape.
(B) Bind the substrate.
(C) Are preserved even after denaturation.
(D) Decided by primary structure alone.

24. "Fats" are chemically :
(A) Lipoproteins. (B) Prostaglandins.
(C) Triglycerides. (D) Phospholipids.

25. The most important factor which controls the blood sugar level is :
(A) Level of insulin in the blood.
(B) Storage of glycogen in the liver.
(C) Blood glucose concentration itself.
(D) Activity of hexokinase.

26. Hypoalbuminemia may be a feature of the following conditions except:
(A) Cirrhosis of liver. (B) Nephrotic syndrom.
(C) Malnutrition. (D) Hyperlipoprotememia.

27. Urea is the catabolic product of:
(A) Proteins. (B) Lipids.
(C) Purines. (D) Carbohydrates.

28. Scurvy is due to deficiency of:
(A) Thiamin. (B) Vitamin C.
(C) Riboflavin. (D) Folic acid.

29. Peptide bond in protein has a back bone of:
(A) C—N—N—C. (B) C—C—N—C.
(C) C—C—C—N. (D) C—O—C—N.

30. Which of the following is a lipotropic factor?
(A) Proline. (B) Inositol.
(C) Cardiolipin. (D) Choline.

31. All the following compounds are intermediates of TCA cycle except:
(A) Malate. (B) Pyruvate.
(C) Oxaloacetate. (D) Fumarate.

32. No. of ATP produced during anaerobic glycolysis is :
(A) 12. (B) 8.
(C) 38. (D) 2.

33. Which test is used to detect urine sugar ?
(A) Biuret test. (B) Hay's test.
(C) Molisch's test. (D) Benedict's test.

34. Specific gravity of urine is increased in :
(A) Diabetes mellitus. (B) Steatorrhea.
(C) Diabetes insipidus. (D) Chronic nephritis.

35. Normal potassium level is :
(A) 35—50meq/L. (B) 135—145meq/L.
(C) 3.5—5meq/L. (D) 0.5—1.5meq/L.

36. An important factor in Kwashiorkor is :
(A) Mineral deficiency. (B) Protein deficiency.
(C) Vitamin deficiency. (D) None of them.

37. The nitrogenous base present in cephalin is :
(A) Serine. (B) Choline.
(C) Elhanolamine. (D) Sphingosine.

38. The coenzyme required for transamination reaction is :
(A) Biotin. (B) Pyridoxal phosphate.
(C) NAD. (D) FAD.

39. An example for sulfur containing aminoacid is :
(A) Alanine. (B) Glutanic acid.
(C) Histidine. (D) Methionine.

40. Negative N3 balance is observed in :
(A) Pregnancy. (B) Chronic illness.
(C) Growth period. (D) Convalescence.

41. In a healthy adult the upper limit of serum creatinine is :
(A) 0.75mg7dl. (B) 1.20mg./dl.
(C) 1.60mg./dl. (D) 2.00mg./dl.

42. Biological value of egg is :
(A) 100. (B) 90.
(C) 80. (D) 50.

43. The major cation of intracellular fluid is :
(A) CaandMg. (B) CaandK.
(C) KandMg. (D) KandNa.

44. The normal pH of blood plasma is :
(A) 7.0. (B) 7.2.
(C) 7.4. (D) 7.6.

45. Which of the following is not a ketone body ?
(A) Acetone. (B) Acetoacetate.
(C) Pyruvate. (D) P-Hydroxybutyrate.

46. Which of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen ?
(A) Liver. (B) Pancreas.
(C) Kidney. (D) Skeletal muscle.

47. The major role of glucocorticoids in carbohydrate metabolism is :
(A) Stimulates glycogenesis in muscle.
(B) Stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
(C) Stimulates gluconcogenesis in liver.
(D) Increased uptake of glucose by extrahepatic tissues.

48. Which of the following is not true regarding glucose ?
(A) It is an aldohexose.
(B) It is a reducing sugar.
(C) It is present in starch and cellulose.
(D) It is an epimer of fructose.

49. One of the following is not a pentose :
(A) Mannose. (B) Xylose.
(C) Ribose. (D) Arabinose.

50. All the following are true regarding active transport mechanism except:
(A) A transporter molecule is present.
(B) There is movement of solutes from lower to higher concentration.
(C) There is movement of solutes from higher to lower concentration.
(D) Requires energy in the form of Hydrolysis of ATP.

51. Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies the following muscles except:
(A) Adductor pollicis. (B) First lumbricals.
(C) First dorsal interosseous. (D) Third lumbricals.

52. Superior cerebral vein drains into :
(A) Great cerebral vein. (B) Vein of Galen.
(C) Superior sagittal sinus. (D) Inferior sagittal sinus.

53. AV node is located in the :
(A) Inter atrial septum.
(B) Moderator band.
(C) Muscular part of inter ventricular septum.
(D) Membranous part of inter ventricular septum.

54. The vein into which the external jugular vein usually drain is :
(A) Internal jugular. (B) Subclavin.
(C) Branchiocephalic. , (D) Azygos.

55. Tactile hallucination is seen in c\c poisoning with :
(A) Cocaine. (B) Opium.
(C) LSD. (D) Cannabis.

56. The most reliable diagnostic sign of drowning is :
(A) Foreign bodies in air passages.
(B) Water in stomach.
(C) Cutis anserine.
(D) Froth at nostrils.

57. Ossification center appearing just before birth is :
(A) Upper end of humerus. (B) Lower end of tibia.
(C) Lower end of femur. (D) Scaphoid.

58. Most reliable method of identification of a person is by :
(A) DNA analysis. (B) Finger printing.
(C) Scars. (D) Anthrapometry.

59. Diagnostic test of secondary syphilis is :
(A) VDRL. (B) TPHA.
(C) Wassermann. (D) Khan.

60. Salk vaccine is a :
(A) Killed vaccine. (B) Live vaccine.
(C) Live attenuated vaccine. (D) Toxoid.

61. Egg contains all the vitamins except:
(A) Vitamin B. (B) Vitamin D.
(C) Vitamin C. (D) Vitamin E.

62. LD bodies are seen in :
(A) Salmonellosis. (B) Leprosy.
(C) Guinea worm infestation. (D) Leishmaniasis.

63. Placenta takes over function of corpuslutium :
(A) 2 weeks. (B) 12 weeks.
(C) 20 weeks. (D) 24 weeks.

64. Spasmodic dysmenorrhoea is seen in :
(A) Ovarian tumour. (B) DUB. y
(C) Endometriosis. (D) Sub mucous fibroid.

65. Most common cause of post part endometriosis is :
(A) E Coli. (B) Gonococcus.
(C) Streptococcus. (D) Protius.

66. Commonest congenital anomaly of uterus is :
(A) Uterus bicomis unicolis. (B) Uterus unicomis.
(C) Uterus bicomis bicolis. (D) Uterus didelphi.

67. Which is not a feature of cataract ?
(A) Black spots. (B) Polyopia.
(C) Coloured hallow. (D) Conjunctival congestion.

68. Commonest tumour of nasopharynx is :
(A) Fibroma. (B) Chondroma.
(C) Papilloma. (D) Adenoma.

69. Honeycomb liver is seen in :
(A) Micronodular cirrhosis. (B) Dubin Johnson*s syndrome.
(C) Actinomycosis. (D) Hydatidosis.

70. Most important radiological sign of splenic rupture is :
(A) Obliteration of psoas shadow.
(B) Obliteration of splenic shadow.
(C) Indentation of left side air bubble.
(D) Fracture of one or more lower ribs on left side.

71. Commonest cause of sudden death is :
(A) Ventricular fibrillation. (B) Cerebro vascular accident.
(C) Ventricular asystol. (D) a\c renal failure.

72. Positive benedict test is seen with the following except:
(A) Salicylates. (B) Glucose.
(C) Vitamin C. (D) Cholesterol.

73. Commonest site of cerebral embolism is :
(A) Anterior cerebral artery. (B) Middle cerebral artery.
(C) Posterior cerebral artery. (D) Posterior communicating artery.

74. Oedepus complex has been described by :
(A) Plato. (B) Socrates.
(C) Freud. (D) Huxley

75. Mind Chapter of Kent's repertory was prepared by :
(A) Lippe. (B) Lee.
(C) Kent. (D) Mithel.

76. Hypertension is given in :
(A) Phatak's repertory. (B) Synthetic repertory.
(C) Both. (D) None.

77. Illusion of touch is given in the ————— chapter of Kent's Repertory.
(A) Mind. (B) Skin.
(C) Chill. (D) Generalities.

78. "Lump sensation in rectum not ameliorated by stool" is seen in :
(A) Anacardium. (B) Nux vom. ^
(C) Aesculus. (D) Sepia.

79. Hiccough after alcoholic drink indicate :
(A) Sulphuric acid. (B) Ranunculus bulbosus.
(C) Nux vom. (D) Lycopodium.

80. "White mucus in stool like pieces of popped corn" indicate :
(A) Cina. (B) Colchicum.
(C) Cantharis. (D) Helleborus.

81. "Cough with irritation in larynx as if some fluid had gone the wrong way" is feature of:
(A) Drosera. (B) Ignetia.
(C) Kali carb. (D) Lachesis.

82. Indurations of glands after injuries is seen in :
(A) Silica. (B) Carbo animalis.
(C) Conium mac. (D) lodum.

83. In which aphorism "Homoeopathic specific remedy" is given in the 5th edition of Organon of
Medicine ?
(A) 241. (B) 204.
(C) 246. J (D) 240.

84. No aggravation of the patient with recovery of the patient is :
(A) 5th observation. (B) 2nd observation.
(C) 3rd observation. (D) 6th observation.

85. How many aphorisms are present in the 4th edition of Organon of Medicine ?
(A) 292. (B) 320.
(C) 259. (D) 318.

86. Accessory symptom of the medicine is given in the aphorism :
(A) 179. (B) 163.
(C) 170. (D) 173.

87. Nux Moschata was introduced to Homoeopathic world by :
(A) Dr. Hahnemann. (B) Dr. Helbig.
(C) Dr.Hering. (D) Dr. Bute.

88. One fluid ounce is :
(A) 6fluiddrahm. (B) 5fluiddrahm.
(C) Sfluiddrahm. (D) 7fluiddrahm.

89. Croton tig belongs to :
(A) Euphorbinacea. (B) Umbiliferacea.
(C) Solanacea. (D) Papaveracea.

90. Meaning of the abbreviation B.I.D. is :
(A) Twice a day. (B) Twice daily.
(C) Drink. (D) A large pill.

91. Which of the following is absorbed in the Colon :
(A) Iron, (B) Protein'
(C) Bilesalt. (D) Sodium.

92. Pucinian Corpuscles are major receptors for :
(A) Pressure. (B) Pain.
(C) Touch. (D) Temperature.

93. Renal calculi is seen in :
(A) Hyperthyroidism. (B) Hyperparathyroidism.
(C) Cushing's disease. (D) Addison's disease.

94. Organ of corti is concerned with :
(A) Hearing. (B) Vision.
(C) Smell. (D) Taste.

95. Under resting condition, the cardiac output (in L/minute) is :
(A) 2. (B) 4.
(C) 5. (D) 9.

96. Plateau phase of action potential curve of cardiac tissue is due to :
(A) Opening of sodium channels. (B) Opening of potassium channels.
(C) Opening of calcium channels. (D) Closing of sodium channels.

97. Swallowing centre is located in :
(A) Mid brain. (B) Pons.
(C) Medulla. (D) Cerebellum.

98. Calcitonin is produced by :
(A) Adrenal cortex. (B) Adrenal medulla.
(C) Parathyroid. (D) Thyroid.

99. The normal life span of RBC (in days) is :
(A) 30. (B) 120.
(C) 150. (D) 180.

100. Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right in all except:
(A) Fall in PH.    (B) Rise in temperature.
(C) Increase of 2, 3, DPG.  (D) HbF.

               Answer Key published by KPSC