INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE   C series
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.

2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.

3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.

4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY

5. The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.

6. Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.

7. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.

8. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.

9. Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .

10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.

11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.

12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.

14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1. Of the below which spreads through the lymphatics?
(A) Leiomyoma (B) Carcinoma
(C) Sarcoma (D) Rhabdomyoma

2. Of the below which is the Myringitis granulosa?
(A) Profuse mucoid discharge with abnormal hearing
(B) Scanty non-mucoid discharge with normal hearing
(C) Discharge with mastoid involvement
(D) Movement of the membrane is abnormal

3. Of the below rubric which is under generalities of Kent's repertory ;
(A) Awkwardness
(B) Feels better when constipated
(C) Chilliness from putting hands out of bed-fever chilliness
(D) Leprosy, psoriasis eruption

4. Which drug belongs to Solanaceae?
(A) Dulcamara (B) Drosera
(C) Equisetum hyemale (D) Digitalis purperea

5. Which group is the universal donor of blood?
(A) A Group (B) B Group
(C) AB Group (D) 0 Group

6. To which disease in the below serum glutamic oxalate transaminase level is studied?
(A) Hepato cellular damage (B) Renal Glomerular damage
(C) Enlarged prostate (D) Bronchi ectasis

7. Of the below which is pterigium?
(A) Pigments present in the retina
(B) Pigments present in the conjunctiva
(C) Twitching of the eyelid
(D) Blood vessels are growing in the outer canthus

8. Of the below in which repertory amelioration is omitted in relationship of remedies?
(A) Boenning Hausen’s therapeutic pocket book
(B) Synthesis
(C) Kent’s repertory
(D) Complete repertory

9. Of these which drug is having longing for alcohol a popular remedy in Russia for drunkards?
(A) Nuxvomica (B) Quercus Glandium Spiritus
(C) Asarum Europaeum (D) Capsicum

10. Of the below which is the suitable method to obtain the pathogenetic power of the drugs?
(A) Animal experiment
(B) Experiment on plants
(C) Experiment on disease person
(D) Experiment by the doctors taking the medicine internally

11. Of the below who is fit to be a homoeopathic physician?
(A) Doctor framing questions so as to get answer yes or no
(B) Doctor framing general expressions regarding the parts, mind
(C) Doctor who writes prescriptions by seeing the report
(D) Doctor who prescribes by simply seeing the patient

12. Of these which symptoms merit for prescription?
(A) Symptoms gathered while taking the medicine
(B) Symptoms expressed in vague terms
(C) Symptoms pursued carefully and circumstantially
(D) Symptoms obtain from the friends and relatives

13. Of these which is required for the physician to prescribe the correct remedy?
(A) Knowledge of pathogenetic powers of few medicines
(B) Knowledge of pathogenetic effects of several drugs
(C) Knowledge of therapeutic hints
(D) Knowledge of previous experience treating the same type of disease

14. Of the below small pox, measles whooping cough belong to which type?
(A) Acute diseases attacking individually
(B) Acute diseases attacking several persons
(C) Acute diseases attacking many persons by the same cause
(D) Acute diseases affecting once in a life time

15. Of these which is of indescribable diversity?
(A) Syphilis (B) Psora
(C) Sycosis (D) Drug diseases

16. Of these which symptoms are pure symptoms?
(A) Symptoms before the use of medicine (B) Symptoms while taking the medicine
(C) Symptoms while taking tranquillizers (D) Symptoms after operation

17. Of the below which is the correct one?
(A) Characteristic of an epidemic is obtained from the knowledge of previous
epidemics
(B) Characteristics of an epidemic is obtained from the knowledge of study of several patient
(C) Characteristics of an epidemic is obtained by studying one patient
(D) Characteristics of an epidemic is obtained by the book knowledge


18. Of the below which is advocated by Hahnemann?
(A) In a freshly arisen eruption of itch after sulphur in answer to a slight change of symptoms to interpose between the dose of sulphur, a small dose of hepar sulphuris calcareum
(B) In a freshly arisen eruption of itch after sulphur in answer to a slight change of symptoms to inter pose between the doses of sulphur, a small dose of calcarea carbonica
(C) Lycopodium
(D) Causticum

19. Of the below who said "We often hear patients classified on snap judgement as a pulsatilla patient, a nux vomica patient or perhaps a phosphorous patient. Because of the general build and colouring associated with these remedies many mistakes have been made in prescribing on this so called type method"?
(A) H.A. Roberts (B) Kent
(C) Stuart Close (D) Hahnemann

20. The following is written by one of the below Doctors :
Biological development : Function creates and develops the organs
Of disease development : Functional symptoms are produced by the vital force in exact proportion to the profundity of the disturbance. Functional
symptoms precede structural change.
(A) Dr. Kent (B) Dr. H.A. Roberts
(C) Dr. Stuart Close (D) Dr. Hahnemann

21. Of the below who said "A rational knowledge of anatomy is important. No homoeopath ever discouraged the true study of anatomy and physiology"?
(A) Stuart Close (B) Kent
(C) H.A. Roberts (D) Hering

22. By which method Hahnemann got the idea similia similibus curentur?
(A) Deduction (B) Induction
(C) Generalisation (D) Individualisation

23. Of these which is Tennis Elbow?
(A) Tenderness on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
(B) Tenderness on the medial epicondyle of the humerus
(C) Swelling of the elbow joint
(D) Atrophy of the muscles attached to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus

24. Of the below which is cerebral irritation?
(A) The patient becomes unconscious for a short period followed by complete recovery
(B) Unconsciousness is prolonged. Patient recovers with confusion, irritability,
delirium blood pressure is reduced. Complaints head ache, photo phobia
(C) Patient remains curled up with knees drawn up, arms flexed
(D) Brain surface is torn. Effusion of blood in. the cerebrospinal fluid. Patient complaints headache, photophobia

25. Of the below which method is useful to stain mycobacterium tuberculosis?
(A) Ziehlneelsens method (B) Gram's method
(C) Alberts stain (D) Flemings method

26. Of these which test is done to diagnose tubercular infection?
(A) Casoni's test (B) Frei test
(C) Montoux test (D) Dick test

27. Which is the varicose ulcer?
(A) Ulcer in the neck, axilla
(B) Ulcer in the upper part of the face
(C) Ulcer on the medial malleolus of lower limb
(D) Ulcer in Glans pens

28. Pain worse after use. The joint feels stiff after rest and it hurts the patient to get going. The joint may give way or locked crepitus is felt. X-ray shows dimunition of joint space.
Of the below in which condition these clinical points are elicited?
(A) Tuberculosis of the knee (B) Osteo arthritis of the knee
(C) Acute pyogenic arthritis (D) Osteo chondroitis

29. To which condition of the below the infective endocarditis belongs?
(A) Presence of organism in the blood
(B) Infective micro organisms invade the blood stream and multiply therein
(C) Septicaemia with pyaemia
(D) Sapraemia

30. Of the below which organism is having terminal spore?
(A) Streptococcus (B) Pneumococcus
(C) Anthrax bacillus (D) Tetanus bacillus

31. Of these which is belonging to the individual?
(A) Peculiar symptoms (B) General symptoms
(C) Local symptoms (D) Past symptoms

32. Of these which is acting more powerfully than others?
(A) Medicines act more powerfully
(B) Infections act more powerfully
(C) Telluric influences act more powerfully
(D) Meteoric influences act more powerfully

33.Of the below which one complicates the chronic malady?
(A) Allopathic method (B) Homoeopathic method
(C) Two dissimilar affections (D) Continuation of maintaining causes

34. Who taught the palliative method?
(A) Galen's Teaching(B) Plato's teaching
(C) Asclepias teaching (D) Cullen's teaching

35. Of the below in which palliative method is done?
(A) Natural disease (B) Sudden accidents
(C) Incurable diseases (D) Acute diseases

36. Of the below through which the medicine acts?
(A) Acts through blood vessels (B) Acts through the tongue
(C) Acts through the nose (D) Acts through the sentient nerves

37. Of these which is deducted according to logic?
(A) Law of totality of symptoms (B) Law of nature to cure diseases
(C) Law of modalities (D) Law of generals

38.Of the below which eradicates permanently the other one?
(A) Two dissimilar diseases meet together
(B) Two similar diseases meet together
(C) Two mechanical injuries occur together
(D) Two poisonous stings occur together

39. Of the below which is the fixed miasm?
(A) Small pox (B) Mechanical injury
(C) Surgical disease (D) Congenital corporeal constitution

40.Of the below which is the curative action?
(A) Every medicine deranges the vital force
(B) Resistant action by the vital force
(C) Alternating action
(D) Action of miasms

41. In which of the below it should not be treated immediately by antipsorics?
(A) Mental diseases resulting from corporeal maladies
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Insanity caused by fright, vexation abuse of intoxicants
(D) Psychosomatic disorders

42. Of the below which is the correct method?
(A) In no case it is requisite to administer more than one single, simple medicinal substance at one time
(B) Combination of mother tinctures
(C) Combination of various triturations
(D) Combinations of mother tinctures and triturations

43. Of the below which type of pass diminishes the excessive restlessness and sleeplessness?
(A) By making a very rapid motion of the flat extended hand
(B) A gentle less rapid negative pass
(C) By touching from head to foot
(D) By touching from foot to head

44. Of the below which aphorism helped Kent to construct the mental generals?
(A) Aphorism 211 , (B) Aphorism 210
(C) Aphorism 209 (D) Aphorism 208

45. Of the below which constitutes intermittent diseases?
(A) Sporadically appear (B) Epidemically appear
(C) Complicated with sycosis (D) Psoric complicated with syphilis

46. In which of the below the patient suffers all the more from the excessive medicinal disease and from the useless exhaustion of his strength?
(A) Antipathic treatment
(B) Small frequent doses
(C) Larger the dose with greater homoeopathicity and the higher the potency
(D) Large doses of allopathic medicine

47. Of the below which is recovery according to Stuart Close?
(A) By the treatment which is not directly and specifically curative in nature
(B) By the administration of suitable antipsoric medicines
(C) By the administration of single high potency drug
(D) By the administration of single lower potency drug


48. Of the below which comes under the grade I according to the obstetrical cases :
(A) Patients with cardiac disease but without resulting limitation of physical activity.Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation, dyspnoea oranginal pain
(B) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity.They are comfortable at rest
(C) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency are present even at rest
(D) None of the above

49. Which is responsible for the second sound of the heart?
(A) Sudden closure ofA.V. valves (B) Closure of the semilunar valves
(C) Opening of the A.V. valves (D) Opening of the semilunar valves

50. Which is the infecting agent of ankylostoma duodenale?
(A) Filariform larva (B) Mosquito bite
(C) Inhalation of dust (D) Bite of sand fly

51. Which type displays the female sex characters?
(A) Anthropoid pelvis (B) Gynaecoid pelvis
(C) Platy pelloid type (D) None of the above

52. Of the below which is responsible for infantile convulsion?
(A) Asphyxia neonatorum (B) Icterus neonatorum
(C) Ophthalmia neonatorum (D) Patent Foramen ovale

53. Which is responsible to maintain 85% colloidal osmotic pressure?
(A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen
(C) Prothrombin (D) Globulin

54. Which is the sensory tract?
(A) Rubro spinal tract (B) Tecto spinal tract
(C) Olivo spinal tract (D) Tract of burdach

55. How many fontanelle are present in a foetus?
(A) Four fontanelle (B) Three fontanelle
(C) Two fontanelle (D) Five fontanelle

56. Which artery is obliterated after the birth of the infant?
(A) Obliteration of the hypogastric arteries
(B) Obliteration of epigastric arteries
(C) Obliteration of the renal artery
(D) Obliteration of the brachial artery

57. Of the below which is the correct one?
(A-) Theory of vital force and drug dynamistation was elaborated first in fifth edition of organon
(B) Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in fourth edition of organon
(C) Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated in third edition of organon
(D) Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated in second edition of organon

58. Of the below persons who introduced the clinical observation?
(A) Hippocrates (B) Hahnemann
(C) Galen (D) Paracelsus

59. Of the below who wrote the introduction to the sixth edition of organon translated by Dr. William Boericke?
(A) Dr. William Boericke (B) Dr. Hale
(C) Dr. Boger (D) Dr. James Kraus

60. In which aphorism the preserver of health is mentioned?
(A) 3rd Aphorism (B) 4th Aphorism
(C) 7th Aphorism (D) 9th Aphorism

61. Of these which term is used in sixth edition of organon?
(A) Vital Force (B) Vital Principle
(C) Dynamic Power (D) Dynamic Energy

62. Of the below periods in which period the manuscript of the sixth edition of organon was in danger of being lost?
(A) Year 1870 to 1871 and years 1914 to 1918
(B) Year 1872 to 1873 and years 1919 to 1923
(C) Year 1874 to 1875 and years 1924 to 1928
(D) Year 1876 to 1877 and years 1929 to 1933

63. Of the below four persons by whom "Cessat-Effectus Cessat Causa" was declared?
(A) Galen (B) Hippocrates
(C) Paracelsus (D) Hahnemann

64. Of the below which method is palliative?
(A) Homoeopathy (B) Allopathy
(C) Isopathy (D) Antipathy

65. Of the below in which aphorism "causes are mentioned"?
(A) 5th Aphorism (B) 6th Aphorism
(C) 7th Aphorism (D) 8th Aphorism


66. Of the below which is peculiar symptom?
(A) Single symptom (B) Local symptom
(C) Multiple symptoms (D) Singular symptom

67. Of the below which is homoeopathic aggravation?
(A) Appearance of old symptoms (B) Appearance of new symptoms
(C) Secondary action (D) Primary action

68. In which condition of the below it is said as accessory symptoms?
(A) Indisposition (B) Distinctive symptoms
(C) Vaguely described symptoms (D) New symptoms appear

69. In which of the below imperfect selection of the medicine is inevitable?
(A) Psoric cases
(B) Syphilitic cases
(C) Present one or two severe violent symptoms
(D) Sycotic cases

70. Which of the below do not constitute sharply separated from all others?
(A) Psora (B) Syphilis
(C) Mental diseses (D) Sycosis

71. Of the below which symptoms of the Drug Acts?
(A) All the symptoms of the drug (B) Homoeopathic symptoms
(C) Common symptoms of the drug (D) Pathological symptoms

72. Of the below which is advocated by Hahnemann in posthumous edition?
(A) Administration of one dose alone (B) Gradually higher doses
(C) Only below 30th centesimal potency (D) Only higher potency

73. In which condition of the below several anti psoric remedies are given in succession?
(A) Diseases of varying nature due to congenital corporeal constitution
(B) Indisposition
(C) Syphilitic miasm
(D) Sycotic miasm

74. In which of the below the local affection increases gradually :
(A) A part of the general disease
(B) By repeated application of antipathic drugs
(C) Mechanical irritation
(D) Sudden poisonings

75. In which "Gut Dysfunction in absence of demonstrable organic pathology?
(A) Cholera (B) Dysentery
(C) Irritable bowel syndrome (D) Diveritcolitis Coli

76. In which "pea soup diarrhoea is noted?
(A) Cholera
(C) Rheumatic fever
(B) Typhoid
(D) Pyelitis

77. Which is intermediate host for Taenia saginata?
(A) Man (B) Cattle
(C) Cat (D) Dog

78. Which is caused by Echinococcus granulosus?
(A) Polycystic ovary(B) Hydatid cyst
(C) Hepatitis infective(D) Cystic lung

79. Of the below which is fat soluble vitamin :
(A) Thiamine(B) Riboflavine
(C) Pyridoxine(D) Vitamin E

80. In which condition cardiac-enzymes raised?
(A) Endocarditis(B) Angina pectoris
(C) Myocardial infarction(D) Left ventricular hypertrophy

81. Of the below who is with glycosuria-closely related to diet, who becomes sugar free with slight restriction :
(A) Potential Diabetes (B) Renal Glycosuria
(C) Pregnancy Glycosuria (D) Emotional Glycosuria

82. Which lesion is caused by Leishmania tropica?
(A) Oriental sore(B) PIasmodium falciparum
(C) Glaucoma(D) PIasmodium malariae

83. Which is causing quartan disease?
(A) PIasmodium vivax(B) Lymphangitis
(C) PIasmodium ovale(D) Neuritis

84. Of the below drugs which is used in kidney affections?
(A) Cephalandra indica • (B) Coleum aromaticus
(C) Calotropis gigantica (D) Carica pappaya

85. Of the below which is the correct one?
(A) When triturations attain the 3X potency then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potency
(B) When triturations attain the 5X potency then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potency
(C) When triturations attains the 6X potency, then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potency
(D) When triturations attains the 12X potency then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potencies

86. Of the below findings which is the correct one?
(A) Water weighs at 20° 997.38 grams (B) Water weighs at 25° 995.92 grams
(C) Water weighs at 30° 995.62 grams (D) Water weighs at 40° 996.75 grams

87. By whom law of similars was noted before Hahnerhann?
(A) Law of similars is the original discovery ofHahnemann as Art-Science
(B) Law of similars was noted by Hippocrates before Hahnemann
(C) Law of similars was noted by Asclepias before Hahnemann
(D) Law of similars was noted by Cullen before Hahnemann

88. Of the below which is the minimum age of a girl who can give valid consent in writing in the presence of one witness for medical examination in case of rape or kidnapping?
(A) A girl of 14 years of age (B) A girl of 13 years of age
(C) A girl of 12 years of age (D) A girl of 15 years of age

89. Of the below statement which is correct?
(A) Potencies above 30th are high potencies
(B) Potencies above 1000th are high potencies
(C) Potencies above 200th are high potencies
(D) Potencies above 500th are high potencies

90. Of the below statements which is correct?
(A) Asclepias in the balance written by Aristotle
(B) Asclepias in the balance written by Cullen
(C) Asclepias in the balance written by Plato
(D) Asclepias in the balance written by Hahnemann

91. Of the above in which edition the theory of chronic disease appeared first?
(A) Theory of chronic disease appeared first in the second edition oforganon
(B) Theory of chronic diseases appeared first in the third edition of organon
(C) Theory of chronic diseases appeared first in the fourth edition of organon
(D) Theory of chronic diseases first appeared in the fifth edition oforganon

92. Of the below which is a correct one?
(A) Every medicine acts on all parts of the body
(B) Every medicine acts in a determinate manner
(C) Every medicine either depresses or excites
(D) Every medicine acts as a tonic

93. Of the below which is the suitable medicine?
(A) The medicine which has the greatest similarity to the totality of symptoms
(B) The medicine which has previously cured the same type of disease
(C) The medicine which has developed the same type of lesions in animal
experimentation
(D) Medicines belonging the same family of plant kingdom or animal kingdom when
the indicated drug is not available

94. Of the below which forms the materia medica pura?
(A) Collection of real, pure, reliable modes of action of simple medicinal substances
(B) Collection of details from the experience of physicians
(C) Collection of details from poisonings
(D) Collection of details from animal experimentation

95. Of the below which requires change in diet regulations?
(A) Indisposition (B) Allopathic bungling
(C) Chronic disease (D) Surgical disease

96. In which aphorism of the below Hahnemann has said that he opened the path of great truth homoeopathy for the blessings of humanity?
(A) Aphorism 109 (B) Aphorism 110
(C) Aphorism 111 (D) Aphorism 112

97. Of the below by which the correct data regarding the drug action can be obtained?
(A) All the alterations can be studied from a single prover
(B) All the alterations can be ascertained at once in the same experiment
(C) All the alterations can be ascertained by several experiments on several persons
(D) All the alterations can be ascertained by the study on laboratory animals

98. In which of the below that nothing can be accurately observed during proving?
(A) When large doses taken (B) When more moderate doses taken
(C) When small doses taken (D) When minute doses taken

99. Of the below which type is cured by homoeopathy in a few days?
(A) Acute disease (B) Some what longer standing
(C) Complicated cases (D) Allopathic bungling

100. Of the below in which numerous striking symptoms are present?
(A) Indisposition (B) Chronic diseases
(C) Acute diseases (D) Poisoning cases

Answer Key by KPSC