INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.

2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.

3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.

4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY

5. The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.

6. Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.

7. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.

8. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.

9. Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .

10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.

11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.

12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.

14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.                               

1. Asthma during sexual contact is a feature of:
(A) Ambra grisea. (B) Nat.Mur.
(C) Sepia. (D) Kreosotum.

2. Which medicine have inflammation of ovaries during childhood :
(A) Aconite. (B) Apis.
(C) Pulsatilla. (D) Rhustox.

3. Leucorrhoea like curds, white of an egg is a feature of:
(A) Mercusius. (B) Borax.
(C) Calc.Carb. (D) Sepia.

4. Atrophy of breast with absence of menses is a feature of:
(A) Daminana. (B) Pituitrin.
(C) lodum. (D) Onosmodium.

5. Absence of menses due to Jaundice is a features of:
(A) Chelidonium. (B) Chionanthus.
(C) Bryonia. (D) Nux. V.

6. Blood from vagina every time the child takes breast:
(A) Puts. (B) Silicea.
(C) Medorrhinum. (D) Bryonia.

7. Which medicine have abortion due to mental strain :
(A) Gels. (B) Sabina.
(C) Secale care. (D) Auram Mur.

8. Which medicine is good for sterility due to Alrophy of ovaries :
(A) Kali Bromatum. (B) lodum.
(C) Sepia. (D) Xanthoxylum.

9. Good remedy for Fibroid in fundal reagion of uterus :
(A) Calc. Carb, (B) Silicea.
(C) Pulsatila. (D) Kaliiodatum. 

10. Menses bleeding only during day time :
(A) Mag carb- (B) Bovista.
(C) Bryonia. (D) Nux vomica.

11. The normal chromosomal pattern in female is :
(A) 46, XX. . (B) 46, XY.
(C) 48, XX. (D) 48, XY.

12. The chromosomal pattern of Turner's syndrome is :
(A) 46, XY. . (B) 46, XX.
(C) 45,X. (D) 69, XXX.

13. Turner's syndrome is characterised by : o
(A) Streak gonad. (B) Normal ovary.
(C) Ovotestis. (D) Testis.

14. The clinical features of Turner's syndrome are the following except:
(A) Webbed neck. (B) Flat chest.
(C) Cubitus valgus. (D) Normal breasts.

15. The chromosomal pattern of Rokitansky syndrome is:
(A) 46,XY. (B) 46,XX.
(C) 45,X. , (D) 47.XXY.

16. The clinical features of Rokitansky syndrome are the following except:
(A) Primary amenorrhoea. (B) Well developed Secondary Sexual Characters.
(C) Absent vagina and uterus. (D) Present vagina and uterus.

17. The uterus is developed from :
(A) The pronephric ducts. (B) The mesonephric ducts.
(C) The Mullerian ducts. (D) The urogenital sinus.

18. The septate uterus is formed as a result of:
(A) Fusion of Mullerian ducts, (B) Incomplete fusion of the ducts.
(C) Noncanalisationof the ducts. (D) Nonresorption of the median septum.

19. The secondary sexual character first to appear is :
(A) The pubic hair. , (B) The breasts.
(C) The axillary hair. (Q) Any of the above.

20. The usual age of menarche is :
(A) lOyrs. (B) 13-14 yrs.
(C) 16-18 yrs. (D) 20 yrs.

21. The gonadotropic hormones are secreted by the pituitary :
(A) Acidophil cells. (B) Basophil cells
(C) Chromophobe cells. (D) Any of the above.

22. LH causes :
(A) Ovarian steroidogenesis.
(B) Ovulation.
(C) Luteinisation of granulosa and theca cells.
(D) All of the above.

23. Second meiotic division of ovum occurs during :
(A) Embryonic life. (B) Follicular phase.
(C) Ovulation. (D) Fertilisation.

24. Normal mature ovum is :
(A) Diploid. (B) tiapload.
(C) Triploid. (D) Tetraploid.

26. Estrogen causes :

(A) Development of breasts.
(B) Proliferative changes in the endometrium.
(C) Deposition of glycogen in the vaginal epithelium.
(D) All of the above.

26. The average duration of menstrual cycle is :
(A) 18 days. (B) 28 days.
(C) 38 days. (D) 42 days.

27. Ovulation occurs usually :
(A) 14 days prior to the succeeding cycle.
(B) 14 days after the menstruation.
(C) 7 days after the onset period.
(D) at the middle of the cycle.

28. The earliest symptom of pregnancy in a regularly menstruating women is :
(A) Missing the period. (B) Morning sickness.
(C) Enlargement of abdomen. (D) Pica.

29. The most sensitive pregnancy test is :
(A) Latex agglutination inhibition test for beta HCG.
(B) Direct latext agglutination test for beta HCG.
(C) Membrane ELISA.
(D) Radio receptor assay.

30. The best method of diagnosis of viable pregnancy is :
(A) Urine pregnancy test, (B) Blood beta HGG. o
(C) Ultrasonography. (D) Clinical examination.

31. The precise method estimation gestational age during the first trimester is by measuring the :
(A) Gestation sac. (B) Crown-rump length.
(C) Biparietal diameter. (D) Femur length.

32. Conjoined twin may result from :
(A) Division of zygote. (B) Division of blastocyst.
(C) Division of morula. (D) Incomplete division of embryonic disc.

33. The diagnostic features of ectopic pregnancy are the following except:
(A) Positive pregnancy test. (B) Adnexal mass.
(C) Fluid in the Douglas pouch. (D) Double ring intrauterine sac.

34. The clinical features of threatened abortion include the following except:
(A) Vaginal bleeding.
(B) Closed cervical os.
(C) Size of uterus corresponding the period of amenorrhoea.
(D) Size of uterus less than the period of amenorrhoea.

35. The fetal component of placenta is :
(A) Chorion leave. (B) Chorion frontosum.
(C) Decidua capsularis. (D) Decidua basalis.

86. In the.intervillous space the maternal blood is separated from the fetal by the following except:
(A) The fetal endothelium. (B) The villous connective tissue.
(C) The trophoblasts. (D) The maternal endothelium.

37. Oxygen is transported to the fetal blood by :
(A) Diffusion. (B) Facilitation.
(C) Pinocytosis. (D) Active transfer.

38. Routine antenatal check up shall be at an interval of:
(A) 4 wks till 28 wks. (B) 2 wks till 36 wks.
(C) 1 wk till 40 wks. (D) All of the above.

39. All antenatal women should have their blood tested for :
(A) ABO and Eh group. (B) STD.
(C) Sugar. (D) All of the above.

40. Sonographic features of complete mole are the following except:
(A) Honey comb appearance. (B) Absent fetal parts.
(C) Absent fetal heart. (D) Presence of normal placental tissue.

41. Incomplete abortion is diagnosed if:
(A) The cervical os is open.
(B) Products of conception are felt in the uterus.
(C) Uterus is less than the period of amenorrhoea.
(D) All of the above are present.


42. Incomplete abortion should be :
(A) Observed. ' (B) Treated medically.
(C) Completed surgically. (D) Managed by any of the above method.

43. Normal female pelvis is : .
(A) Android. (B) Anthrapoid.
(C) Gynecoid. ' (D) Platypelloid.

44. The shortest diameter in the plane of least pelvic dimension is :
(A) Transverse. (B) Anteroposterior.
(C) Posterior sagittal. (D) Oblique.

45. Type of pelvis predisposed to occipitoposterior position is:
(A) Gynecoid. (B) Anthrapoid-
(C) Platypelloid. (D) Mixed.

46. Normal presentation is:
(A) Vertex. (B) Face.
(C) Brow. . (D) Breech.

47. Engaging diameter of vertex presentation
(A) Verticomental. (B) Suboccipito bregmatic.
(C) Submentobregmatic. (D) Bisilliac.

43. Onset of labour is suspected by :
(A) Irregular uterine contractions- (B) Rupture of membranes.
(C) Vaginal bleeding. (D) Regular painful uterine contractions.

49. Progress of labour is assessed by :
(A) Intensity of uterine contractions. (B) Dilatation of cervix.
(C) Descent of presenting part. (D) Allot the above.

60. First stage of labour lasts from the onset of true labour pains to 
(A) Rupture of membranes, (B) Expulsion of fetus.
(C) Expulsion of placenta. (D) Full dilatation of cervix,

61. The last menses period is dated from:
(A) First day of the last normal period.
(B) Last day of the last normal period.
(C) First day of the last bleeding episode.
(D) Last day of the last bleeding episode.

62. Breast examination is done in the :
(A) Supine position. (B) Sitting position.
(C) Both A and B. (D) None of the above.

63. The genital system develops from which embryonic structure :
(A) Ectoderm. (B) Mesoderm.
(C) Endoderm. (D) Embryonic plate.

54. Which part of ovary comes to contain the developing Follicles :
(A) Cortex. (B) Medulla.
(C) BothA+B. (D) None of these.

55. Which of the following does not form from urogenital sinus ?
(A) Urethra. (B) Hymen.
(C) Epithelicum of urinary bladder. (D) Rectum.

56. The Fallopiean Tube is derived from:
(A) Wolffianduct. (B) Meta nepnricdU(|t.
(C) Mullerian duct. (D) Uro genital sinus,

57. Arrest of Foetal descent occurs commonly at the plane of:
(A) Pelvic inlet. (B) Greatest diameter.
(C) Least diameter . (D) Pelvic outlet.

58. The portion of the broad ligament between the Ovaries and Fallopean tube is
(A) Round ligament. (B) Ligament of Jocob's.
(C) Cardinal ligament. (D) Meso salpinx.

59. Streak ovary is associated with:
(A) Klinefelter's syndrome. (B) Asherman's syndrome.
(C) Osteoeniais imperfecta. (D) Turner's syndrome.

60. The level of the alpha foeta protein is normal in amniotic fluid in which of the following condition:
(A) Spina bifida. (B) Anencephaly.
(C) Oesophagal atresia. (D) Post Maturity.

61. Ptyalism is caused by :
(A) Excess production of saliva.
(B) Excess production of gastric acid.
(C) Inability of the patient to swallow normal amount.
(D) Allergic reactions to various food during pregnancy.

62. A positive pregnancy test may be associated with :
(A) Spontaneous abortion. (B) Intra uterine pregnancy.
(C) Ectopic Pregnancy. (D) All of the above.

63. Most common foetal lie found during early pregnancy is :
(A) Oblique. (B) Transverse.
(C) Vertex. (D) Longitudinal.

64. Older gravidas have an increased incidence of:
(A) Ut. inertia. (B) Mal prsentation.
(C) Hypertension. (D) Allot the above.

65. Meconium aspiration syndrome is associated with :
(A) Prolonged labour. (B) Post dated pregnancy.
(C) I.U.G.R. (D) All of the above.

66. Mastitis followed by breast abscess in most frequently due to:
(A) Bacterial vaginosis. (B) Pneumococcus.
(C) Esch erichia coli. (D) Staphylococcus.

67. Most common cause of PPH is :
(A) Ut. Laceration. (B) Ut.atony.
(C) Cervical Laceration. (D) Vaginal Laceration.

68. All of the following are factors which Predisposes to post partum infection except:
(A) Maternal obesity.
(B) Anaemia.
(C) Premature rupture of membranes.
(D) Post dated Pregnancy.

69. Pregnancies with severely affected Rh immunized foetus may be complicated by :
(A) Poly hydramnios. (B) Foetal hydrops.
(C) Foetal cardiae failure. (D) All of the above.

70. Complication for an Rh positive foetus with an Rh negative mother will usually first appear inwhich pregnancy :
(A) First. (B) Second.
(C) Third. (D) Fourth.

71. Which location of Leomyomata is most associated with spontaneous abortion :
(A) Subserosal. (B) Submucosal.
(C) Intramural. (D) Pedunculated.

72. Asherman's syndrome is best diagnosed by which of the following :
(A) History. (B) Physical examination.
(C) Hysteroscopy. (D) Ultra Sound.

73. All of the following medical condition are associated with an increased risk of First trimester abortion
except:
(A) Diabetes. (B) Luteal phase inadequacy.
(C) Hyperthyroidism. (D) Hypothyroidism.

74. The Ph of urine on pregnancy as compared with a non pregnant state is :
(A) Increased. (B) The same; .
(C) Decreased. (D) Dependant on gestational age.

75. The risk of congenital rubella syndrome is greatest if infection occurs in:
(A) First trimester. (B) Second trimester.
(C) Third trimester. (D) Before pregnancy.

76. What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient who presents with hypertension in the twelfth week of Pregnancy :
(A) P.E.T.
(B) Eclampsia
(C) C/C hypertension (Pre eclampsic toaxemia)
(D) Hyper thyroidism. -

77. Intra pastum management of twin pregnancy at term is usually determined by :
(A) Gestational age. (B) Presentation of twins.
(C) Local custom. (D) Size of twins.

78. Couvelaire uterus is associated with :
(A) Placenta previa. (B) Abruptio placenta.
(C) Vasapraevia. o (D) All of the above.

79. Which of the following are common to both placenta praevia and abruptio placenta 
(A) Vaginal bleeding, i (B) Abdominal discomfort.
(C) Painful ut. contraction. (D) Presence of normal foetal heartds.

80. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is associated with a purulent haemorolagic secretion:
(A) Granuloma inguinale. (B) Lympho granuloma venesum.
(C) Chancroid. (D) Syphilis.

81. Which of the following structures does not provide direct support to the pelvic organs :
(A) Pelvic muscles. (B) Fascia.
(C) Boiayptiyis.  (D) Ligaments.

82. Small bowel herniation is found in :
(A) Rectocle, (B) Cystocele.
(C) Urethrocele. (0) Enterocele.

83. Which of the following is not a manifestation of pelvic relaxation :
(A) Uterine prolapse. (B) Procidentia.
(C) Vault prolapse. (D) Uterine retroversion.

84. In women most urinary tract infection happens through :
(A) Haematogenous spread.
(B) Lymphatic spread.
(C) Ascending urethral contamination.
(D) Retained urine.

85. What is the normal effect of progestrone on ureters in Pregnancy :
(A) There is more dilation of the left ureter than of the right.
(B) There is more dilation of the ureter.
(C) Both ureters dilate equally.
(D) Both ureters constrict equally.

86. The common cause of foetal tachy cardia :
(A) Foetal anaemia. (B) Maternal anaemia.
(C) Maternal'hyperthermia. (D) Maternal Hypothermia.

87. Foetal sleep is associated with what change in foetal heart rate.
(A) Increased. o (B) Unchanged.
(C) Decreased. (D) Both A and C

88-. The diagnosis of endometriosis is suspected on the basis of:
(A) Culture and sensitivity. (B) Histology.
(C) Typical history. (D) Family history.

89. What type of abnormal  bleeding is associated with endometrioais :
(A) Menorrhagia. (B) Anovulatory bleeding.
(C) Amenorrhoea. (D) Hypermenrrhoea.

90. Nipple discharge associated with Burning, itching or nipple discomfort in older patients is suggestive of:
(A) Intra ductal papilloma. (B), Fibroadenoma.
(C) Ductal ectasia. (D) Papillary Carcinoma.

91. Which Medicine shows delayed labour in second stage due to uterine inertia :
(A) Pitutarin. (B) Caulophyllum
© Cuprammet. (D) Pulsattila

92. Nipples cracked and ragged extreme sensitive cannot bear to touch this symptom peculiar to :
(A) Silicea. (B) Castor equi.
(C) Sarasaparilla. (D) Graphitis.

93. Vomitting of Pregnancy in women have the colour of dark olive green is a feature of:
(A) Carbolic acid. (B) Cerium oxalicum.
(C) Sepia. (D) Symphoricarpus.

94. Which medicine is more suitable for habitual abortion :
(A) Sabina. (B) Vibrunam.
(C) Sepia. (D) Pulsatila.

95. Which medicine shows retension of urine with Albiminuria :
(A) Cantharis. (B) Terebinth.
(C) Apis. (D) Helonlas.

96. Which medicine have aversion for bread during pregnancy :
(A) Sepia.  (B) Lycopodium.
(C) Colchicum. (D) Arsalb.

97. Reflex cough of pregnant women is a feature of:
(A) Kali Bromatum. (B) KaliSich.
(C) Causticum. (D) Conium.

98. Madness during pregnancy is found in one of the following medicine :
(A) Stramonium. (B) NuxMos.
(C) Cicuta. (D) Actea Racemosa.

99. Toothache in Pregnancy is relieved by keeping cold water
(A) Coeffea. (B) Kreosotum.
(C) Pulsatila. (D) Chamomula.

100. Leucorrhoea, Profuse watery during pregnancy at night:
(A) Alumina. (B) Syphillinum.
(C) Both A and B. (D) None of the above.

Answers published by KPSC C series