INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1.The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2.The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3.The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.

4.If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5.The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6.Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7.The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8.Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9.Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .
10.Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11.Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.

12.Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13.No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14.Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.


1. The time required for the fixation of postmortem staining falls within one of the following ranges: .
(A) 1 to 4 hours. . (B) 4 to 6 hours.
(C) 6 to 12 hours. (D) 12 to 18 hours.

2. The most common type of inquest in India is :
(A) Coroner. (B) Magistrate.
(C) Procurator Fiscal. (D) Police.

3. The following pesticide produces a garlicky odour of stomach contents :
(A) Phorate. (B) Paramar.
(C) Paraquat. (D) Endrin.

4, One of the following statements is NOT true :
(A) An Additional Sessions Judge can award any 'punishment authorized by law. '
(B) An Assistant Sessions Judge can award imprisonment for a teem exceeding 10 years.
(C) Death sentence passed by an Additional Sessions Judge has to be confirmed by the High /Court.
(D) An Assistant Sessions Judge cannot pass a death sentence. '/

5. Which of the following produces both physical and psychological dependence ?
(A) Cocaine. (B) LSD.
(C) Opium. (D) Marijuana.

6. Foramen ovule in an infant gets closed in one of the following period after birth :
(A) 1—2 weeks. (B) 2—4 weeks.
(C) 1—2 months.^ (D) 2—3 months.

7. In a court proceedings the judge can ask questions during :
(A) Examination-in-chief. (B) Cross examination.
(C) Any stage of the examination. (D) Re-examination.

8. The Central Council of Homeopathy Act was passed in the year :
(A) 1971. (B) 1972.
(C) 1973. (D) 1974.

 9. Which of the following beverages contains the maximum percentage of alcohol ?
(A) Whisky. (B) Brandy.
(C) Wine. (D) Rum.

10. The venom ofkrait is :
(A) Myotoxic. (B) Cardiotoxic.
(C) Haemotoxic. (D) Neurotoxic.

11. Touting means :
(A) Using agents for procuring patients.
(B) Splitting of fees received for professional service,
(C) Assisting unqualified persons in treating patients.
(D) Association of a doctor with a body of unqualified persons.

12. All the following are features of a dead born child except:
(A) Spalding's sign.
(B) Skin slippage.
(C) Greenish discolouration of skin.
(D) Sweetish disagreeable smell.

13. One of the following is NOT a delayed cause of death from injury :
(A) Tetanus. (B) Eat embolism.
(C) Thromboembolism. (D) Air embolism.

14. Avulsion is a type of:
(A) Chop wound. . - (B) Incised wound.
(C) Laceration. (D) None of the above.

15. In judicial hanging, fracture of vertebral column is usually seen between :
(A) C1andC2. (B) C2 and C3.
(C) C4andC5. (D) C5 and C6.

16. Medullary index of hair is used to determine :
(A) Age. (B) Race.
(C) Sex. (D) Species.

17. Which one of the following biological fluids is NOT studied for estimating postmortem interval:
(A) Vitreous humor. (B) Urine.
(C) CSF. (D) Blood.

18. Finger prints can be permanently altered by:
(A) Eczema. (B) Leprosy.
(C) Psoriasis. (D) Scleroderma.

19. Brush burn results from :
(A) Impact. (B) Graze.
(C) Pressure. (D) Dry heat:

20. Haptic hallucinations are seen in chronic poisoning with :
(A) Cocaine. (B) Cannabis.
(C) LSD. (D) Heroin.

21. Poisoning with one of the following produces clinical features similar to viper bite :

(A) Abrus Precatorius. (B) Ricinus Communis.
(C) Semecarpus Anacardium. (D) Cerbera thevetia.

22. A First Class Judicial Magistrate can award imprisonment for a maximum period of :
(A) 3 years. (B) 5 years.
(C) 7 years. (D) 10 years.

23. A foetus is considered viable during the following month of intrauterine life :
(A) 5th. (B) 6th.
 (C) 7th. (D) 8th.

24. The section of IPC that define an injury:
(A) 44. (B) 319.
(C) 320. (D) 324.

25. The usual postmortem interval required for the appearance of marbling :
(A) 18 hours. (B) 24 hours.
(C) 36 hours. (D) 48 hours.

26. Homicidal hanging is also known as :
(A) Mugging. (B) Lynching.
(C) Garroting. . (D) Burking.

27. Minimata disease is seen in poisoning with :
(A) Copper. . (B) Lead.
(C) Mercury. (D) Antimony.

28. McEwan*s pupil is seen in poisoning with :
(A) Ethylalcohol. (B) Opium.
(C) Barbiturates. (D) Chloral Hydrate.

29. Excusable homicide includes :
(A) Judicial Execution. (B) Homicide Committed by an insane person.
(C) Infanticide by mother. (D) Death following police firing.

30, The clinical picture of lucid interval is commonly seen in one of the following types of intracranial haemorrhage :
(A) Subdural. (B) Extradural.
(C) Intracerebral. (D) Subarachnoid.

31. The commonest type of finger print pattern :
(A) Loops. (B) Whorls.
(C) Arches. (D) Composite.

32. The blood is cherry red colour in poisoning with :
(A) Nitrites. (B) Cyanides.
(C) Carbon monoxide. (D) Phosphorous.

33. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's technique for age estimation is :
(A) Attrition. (B) Cementum opposition.
(C) Root resorption. (D) Root transparency.

34. Delirium tremens is seen in chronic abuse of:
(A) Alcohol. (B) Cocaine.
(C) Datura. (D) Heroin.

35. Compressing the neck by the bend of the elbow-is :
(A) Mugging. (B) Bansdola.
(C) Burking. (D) Choking.

36. The commonest site of traumatic rupture of intestines is :
(A) Jejenum. (B) Ileum.
(C) Duodenum. (D) Caecum.

37. One of the following skeletal indices is used to determine the race of an individual:
(A) Ischiopubic. (B) Sciatic notch.
(C) Cephalic. (D) Medullary. '

38. All the following injuries amount to Grievous hurt except:
(A) Permanent privation of sight of either eye.
(B) Privation of any member or joint. 
(C) Disfiguration of head or face. 
(D) Fracture or dislocation of any bone or tooth.

39. Bluish discolouration of vaginal mucosa in pregnancy is known as :
(A) GoodelFs sign. (B) Bame's sign.
(C) Hegar's sign. (D) Jacquemier*s sign.

40. Which one of the following is NOT an aggravated form of rape ?
(A) Gang rape.
(B) Rape on a pregnant woman.
(C) Rape on a woman in police custody.
(D) Rape on a girl below 15 years of age.

41. Of the following causes of impotence in males, which is the commonest one ?
(A) Diabetes Mellitus. , (B) Large hernias.
(C) Emotional Disturbances. ^ (D) Orchitis following Mumps.

42. One of the following types of injury is characteristic of run-over accidents :
(A) Avulsion. (B) Stretch laceration.
(C) Patterned Abrasion. (D) Split laceration.

43. The most definite method of identification of an individual is :
(A) DNA finger printing. (B) Neutron Activation Analysis.
(C) Cheiloscopy. (D) Dactylography.

44. Hydrocution is due to :
(A) Electrolyte imbalance. (B) Vagal inhibition.
(C) Reflex laryngeal spasm. (D) Ventricular fibrillation.

45. All the following are clinical signs of brain stem death except:
(A) Dilated and fixed pupils.
(B) Absence of pulse.
(C) Absence of vestibulo occular reflexes.
(D) Absence of spontaneous breathing.

46. Quickening is felt by the mother during the following period of pregnancy:
(A) 10—12 weeks. (B) 12—16 weeks.
(C) 16—20 weeks. (D) 20—24 weeks.

47. A doctor disclosing the syphilitic condition of his patient to any one concerned is an example of:
(A) Therapeutic privilege. (B) Ethical negligence.
(C) Privileged Communication. ' (D) Therapeutic Misadventure.

48. One of the following statements regarding MTP Act, 1971 is NOT true :
(A) Consent of the husband is necessary.
(B) Termination may be carried out in any maternity hospital.
(C) Pregnancy may be terminated on grounds of contraceptive failure.
(D) Above 12 weeks of pregnancy, two doctors have to opine jointly regarding applicability of nan indication.

49. Florence test detects the following constituent of semen :
(A) Spennine. (B) Choline.
(C) Fructose. (D) Acid phosphatase.

50. Marsh*s test is diagnostic of poisoning with :
(A) Arsenic. (B) Copper.
(C) Lead. (D) Mercury.

51. The punishment awarded to a doctor found guilty of professional criminal negligence is :
(A) Imprisonment for 2 years. (B) Fine.
(C) Imprisonment for 7 years. (D) 2 years imprisonment and fine.

52. Cheiloscopy is the study of the prints of:
(A) Foot. (B) Lip-
(C) Palate. (D) Fingers.

53. The term "whiplash injury" refers to that involving the :
(A) Spine. (B) Long bones.
(C) Skull. (D) Rib cage.

54. The central council of Homeopathy Amendment Act was passed in the year :
(A) 2000. (B) 2001.
(C) 2002. (D) 2004.

 55. Coroner's inquest was abolished in India in the year :
(A) 1998. (B) 1999.
(C) 2000. (D) 2001.

56. The preservative routinely used for preserving viscera for chemical examination is :
(A) Normal saline. (B) 10 % Formalin.
(C) Saturated saline. (D) Formol saline.

57. Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with :
(A) Nitric acid. (B) Oxalic acid.
(C) Carbolic acid. (D) Acetic acid.

58. The following documents are exceptions to oral evidence in court except:
(A) Postmortem reports. (B) Dying declaration.
(C) Reports of Mint Officers. (D) Chemical Examiner's reports.

59, One of the following tests is used for the detection of old blood stains :
(A) Takayana's test. . (B) Spectroscopy
(C) Microscopy. (D) Kastle Mayer test.

60. Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding firearm exit wound ?
(A) Everted margins. (B) Larger than the diameter of the bullet.
(C) Presence of abrasion collar. (D) Presence of grease collar.

61. The colour of postmortem staining is bright red in poisoning with :
(A) Carbon monoxide. (B) Phosphorous.
(C) Cyanides. (D) Carbon dioxide.

62. False sense of perception without an external object is :
(A) Illusion. (B) Hallucination.
(C) Phobia. (D) Delusion.\

'63. The bite of one of the following snakes can produce clinical features similar to crush syndrome :
(A) Krait. (B) King Cobra.-/
(C) Russel's Viper. (D) Sea Snake.

64, Anteroposterior compression fracture of hyoid bone is seen in :
(A) Gagging. (B) Throttling.
(C) Traumatic asphyxia. (D) Hanging.
 
65. Adipocere formation requires one of the following environmental conditions :—
(A) Cold and Moist. (B) Warm and Dry.
(C) Cold and Dry. (D) Warm and Moist.

66. In India, the time limit for exhumation is :
(A) 5 years. (B) 10 years.
(C) 20 years. (D) No time limit. ,

67. One of the following is NOT anantemortem feature of bums :
(A) Presence of soot in air passages.
(B) Pugilistic Attitude.
(C) Cutaneous blisters containing albumen.
(D) Elevated carboxyhaemoglobin levels.

68. All the following conditions of the husband are indications for Artificial Insemination Donor except: .
(A) Impotence.(B) Sickle cell disease.
(C) Sterility (D) Rh incompatibility.

69. The minimum age for giving valid consent for medical examination :
(A) 10 years. (B) 12 years.
(C) 14 years. (D) 18 years. •

70. Mee's lines are seen in chronic poisoning with ;
(A) Lead. (B) Arsenic.
(C) Copper. (D) Mercury.

71. The most commonly accepted hypothesis of SIDS is :
(A) Respiratory infection. (B) Sleep Apnoea.
(C) Hypoganunaglobulinaemia. (D) Cow's milk allergy.

72. In the Mental Health Act, the term "lunatic" is replaced by :
(A) Mental patient. (B) Mentally ill patient.
(C) Mentally disordered patient. (D) Mentally unsound patient.

73. A toxalbumen is produced by one of the following plants :—
(A) Semacarpus anacardium. (B) Croton Tiglium.
(C) Plumbago Rosea. (D) Calotropis Gigantea.

74. In case of death in prison, inquest will be conducted by :
(A) Police. (B) Executive Magistrate.
(C) Jail Superintendent. (D) Doctor.

75. Fat embolism can be caused by :
(A) Subclavian vein catheterisation. (B) Caesarean section. ,—--
(C) Fracture of long bones. (D) incised wounds of lower cervical region.

76. Epidemic dropsy is caused by consuming :
(A) Mushrooms. (B) Lathyrus Sativus.
(C) Mustard oil. (D) Argemone oil.

77. Which one of the following is NOT a constituent of Universal Antidote ?
(A) Animal charcoal. (B) Tannie acid.
(C) Magnesium oxide.  (D) Potassium permanganate.

 78. In secretors, blood group factors can be determined from all of the following except:
(A) Urine.  (B) CSF.
(C) Semen. (D) Saliva.

79. Fracture-a-la-signature is a :
(A) Ring fracture. (B) Depressed fracture.
(C) Sutural diastasis. (D) Comminuted fractures.

80. The structure which has got minimum molecular life :
(A) Nervous tissue. (B) Connective tissue.
(C) Skeletal tissue. (D) Cardiac muscle.

81. Criminal responsibility of an insane is defined in the following section ofIPC :
(A) 82. (B) 84.
(C) 85. (D) 87.

82. Burtonian line is seen in chronic poisoning with ;
(A) Lead. (B) Arsenic.
(C) Barium. (D) Manganese.

83. All the following .are features of a still born foetus except:
(A) Born after 28 weeks of pregnancy.
(B) Was alive in utero.
(C) Will show signs of maceration.
(D) Severe moulding of head. [RtO.J
 
 84. Chapter III of the Central Council of Homeopathy Act deals with :
(A) Recognition of medical qualifications.'
(B) Central register.
(C) Miscellaneous.
(D) Number of seats allocated in Central Council in each state.

85. The Indian Lunacy Act of 19i2 has been replaced by the Mental Health Act of:
(A) 1986. . (B), 1987.
(C) 1988. (D) 1989.

86. Constricted pupils are seen in poisoning with :
(A) Datura. (B) Cocaine.
(C) Cannabis. (D) Opium.

87. The "thing or fact that speaks for itself" is legally termed :
(A) Res judicata. (B) Vis Major.
(C) Respondent superior. (D) Res ipsa loquitur.

88. All the following are the differential diagnosis of Battered Baby Syndrome except:
(A) Scurvy. (B) Osteomyelitis.
(C) Congenital syphilis. (D) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

89. Punishment for murder is prescribed in one of the following sections of the IPC :
(A) 302. (B) 304.
(C) 306. (D) 309V

90. One of the following statements is NOT true regarding dying declaration :
(A) Oath is not required. •
(B) Cross examination is allowed.
(C) A doctor should preferably be present during the recording.
(D) The statement can be recorded by any person.

91. Incised looking lacerated wounds are :
(A) Split lacerations. (B) Stretch lacerations.
(C) Cut lacerations. (D) Tears.

92. The most conclusive evidence of antemortem drowning is the presence of:
(A) Water in the stomach. (B) Emphysema Aquosum.
(C) Foreign bodies in air passages. (D) Persistent froth at mouth.

93. Sex of a developing foetus can be determined in the following month ofintrauterine life :
(A) 3rd. , (B) 4th.
(C) 5th. (D) 6th

94. Railway spine refers to one of the following types of injury to the spinal cord :
(A) Confusion (B) Laceration.
(C) Concussion. (D) Transection.

95. In typical hanging, the position of the knot on the neck is :
(A) At the nape of the neck.
(B) Under the chin.
(C) Anywhere other than the back of neck.
(D) Just beneath the angle of jaw.

 96, The first permanent tooth to erupt is the :
(A) Canine. (B) Lateral incisor.
(C) First molar. . (D) Central Incisor.

97. Statutory rape, is rape on a girl below :
(A) 10 years. (B) 12 years.
(C) 15 years. (D) 16 years.

98. The irresistible desire to steal articles is known as :
(A) Kleptomania. (B) Dipsomania.
(C) Pyromania. (D) Mutilomania.

99. All the following are true regarding a lacerated wound except:
(A) Irregular margins. (B) Haemorrhage is more.
(C) Bruising of margins. (D) Bridging of tissues.

100. A bullet which strikes an intervening object before hitting a target is called :
(A) Dumdum. (B) Yawing.
(C) Tandem. (D) Ricochet.

Answers published by KPSC