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Date posted: November 5, 2011

Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Organon of Medicine Examinations 2005
C series  170/2005     Maximum: 100 marks     Time : 1 hour 15 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1.The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2.The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3.The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
4.If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5.The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6.Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7.The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8.Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9.Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work.
10.Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11.Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
12.Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13.No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14.Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

Maximum: 100 marks        Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Cure is effected by :

  • (A) Primary action of similar medicine.
  • (B) Secondary action of similar medicine.
  • (C) Both primary and secondary action of similar medicine.
  • (D) Conjoint action.

2. Surrogates are :

  • (A) Homoepathic medicines. (B) Substitutive medicines.
  • (C) Allopathic medicines. (D) Antipathic medicines.

3. Artificial chronic diseases are :

  • (A) Drug diseases. (B) Drug plus miasmatic diseases.
  • (C) Miasmatic diseases. (D) None of the above.

4. Psora is the cause of;

  • (A) Non-veneral chronic diseases.
  • (B) Veneral chronic diseases.
  • (C) Both non-veneral and venereal chronic diseases.
  • (D) All acute and chronic diseases.

5. Primary action of medicine is :

  • (A) Actions of both medicine and vital principle.
  • (B) Action of medicine.
  • (C) Action of vital principle.
  • (D) Reaction of vital principle.

6. Symptomatic treatment is :

  • (A) Antipathic treatment. (B) Allopathic treatment.
  • (C) Isopathic treatment. (D) Homoepathic treatment.

7. A medicine may be called homoeopathic, if it is :

  • (A) Included in homeopathic Materia Medica.
  • (B) Used in potensied form.
  • (C) Prepared according to homoeopathic pharmacopoeia.
  • (D) Based on the basis of simila.

8. Vaccination against small pox was an imitation of:

  • (A) Homoepathy. (B) Antipathy.
  • (C) Isopathy. (D) Allopathy. 

9. Two dissimilar diseases, when both are of chronic character and of equal strength meeting together in the human being will cause :

  • (A) New one will be repelled by old one.
  • (B) Old one to be suspended by new one.
  • (C) A complex disease.
  • (D) Neutralisation by each other

10. ‘The introduction’ to Organon of Medicine was introduced in the book for the first in :

  • (A) The 1st Edition. (B) 2nd Edition.
  • (C) 3rd Edition. (D) 4th Edition.

11. Totality of symptoms includes :

  • (A) Only signs. (B) Only symptoms.
  • (C) Both signs and symptoms. (D) Only keynot symptoms.

12. The doctrine of drug dynamisation of the Organon of medicine was first introduced by Hahnemam in its :

  • (A) 1st Edition. (B) 2nd Edition.
  • (C) 3rd Edition. (D) 5th Edition.

13. A homoeopath may use medicines :

  • (A) Only homoeopathic. (B) Both homoeopathic and antipathic.
  • (C) Homoeopathic and isopathic. (D) All Homoeopathic and isopathic.

14. Hahnemann wrote in :

  • (A) Only german language. (B) Both German and Latin.
  • (C) German, English and Latin. (D) German, French and Latin.

15. Psora is the cause of:

  • (A) All diseases, acute and chronic.
  • (B) Only chronic diseases.
  • (C) Only non-venereal chronic diseases.
  • (D) Only veneral diseases.

16. The phrase “Aude sapere’ was coined by :

  • (A) Hippocrates. (B) Horace.
  • (C) Hahnemann. (D) Homer.

17. Hahnemann dies in the city of:

  • (A) Meissen. (B) Leipzig.
  • (C) Paris. (D) Koethen.

18. Surrogates are :

  • (A) Allopathic medicines. (B) Antipathic medicines.
  • (C) Homoeopathic medicines. (D) Substitutive medicines.

19. Hahnemann mentioned about the law of similia for the first time in :

  • (A) 1796 BC. (B) I790AD.
  • (C) 1796 AD. (D) 1805 BC.
  • (E) 1810 AD.

20. The ‘chronic Diseases’ contains :

  • (A) Only provings of drugs.
  • (B) Provings of drugs and nature of chronic diseses.
  • (C) Proving, nature of chronic diseases and their effective treatment.
  • (D) Nature of chronic diseases.

21. The fourth edition of Hahnemann’s Organon contained sections numbering

  • (A) 318. (B) 259.
  • (C) 315. (D) 292.

22. Pain in the head is a :

  • (A) Symptom. (B) Sign.
  • (C) Characteristic. (D) Characteristic sign.

23. Tolle causm means :

  • (A) Remove the diseases. (B) Remove the maintaining cause.
  • (C) Remove the cause. (D) Remove the fundmental cause.

24. Among all chronic diseases the most deplorable, incurable diseases are :

  • (A) Pseudo-chronic diseases. (B) Artifical chronic diseases.
  • (C) True natural chronic diseases. (D) None of the above.

26. Hahnemannian concept of general symptoms refers to :

  • (A) Common symptoms. (B) Uncommon symptoms.
  • (C) Characteristic symptoms. (D) None of the above.

26. Kentian concept of general symptoms refers to :

  • (A) Common symptoms.
  • (B) Uncommon symptoms.
  • (C) Symptoms related to the patient as a whole, which may be common or uncommon.
  • (D) None of the above,

27. In chronic case the most minute peculiarities must be attened because they :

  • (A) are most characteristic.
  • (B) Help in the choice of the remedy.
  • (C) Have connection with principal remedy.
  • (D) All of the above.

28. Homeopathic specific remedy relates to :

  • (A) A medicine related to a particular disease.
  • (B) A medicine in relation to a particular person.
  • (C) A medicine related to a particular group of characteristic symptoms.
  • (D) A medicine related to a particular group of symptoms.

29. Theoretic medicine is a :

  • (A) Substitutive medicine.
  • (B) A Palliative medicine-
  • (C) Concept in relation to the development of diseases and their treatment.
  • (D) A curative medicine.

30. In sec. 110 of Ogranon of Medicine (5th Edition) Dr. Hahnemann criticized the concept of “Doctrine of Signature” :

  • (A) Yes.                                                   (B) No
  • (C) No reference of this concept. (D) None of the above.

31. According to Stuart Close constitution of an individual develops as a result of the following

  • (A) Interaction between hereditary and environment factors.
  • (B) Interaction between simple substance and medicine.
  • (C) Interaction between simple substance and disease.
  • (D) None of the above.

32. Totality of symptoms :

  • (A) Quantitative.                                 (B) Quantitative.
  • (C) Quantitative and qualitative. (D) Not related to either quantity or quality.

33. In section 153 of Organon of Medicine (5th edition) Hahnemann actually evaluated the symptoms :

  • (A) Yes.
  • (B) No.
  • (C) This section is not at all related to symptom classification.
  • (D) This section is related to miasmatic diagnosis.

34. The objective(s) of homoeopathic case taking is (are):

  • (A) Diagnosis of the disease. (B) Individualization.
  • (C) Anamnesis. (D) All of the above.

35. The importance of diagnosis of disease in the selection of homoepathic is as follows :

  • (A) Nothing. (B) Least. .
  • (C) Highly. (D) None of the above.

36. Homoeopathic aggravation is due to :

  • (A) Primary action of medicine. (B) Secondary action of medicine.
  • (C) Large doses of medicine. (D) Incorrect selection of medicine.

37.. 50 millisimal scale is described in which edition of Organon of medicine ?

  • (A) 1st edition. (B) 2nd edition.
  • (C) Vth edition. (D) VIth edition.

38. Hering’s law of cure is depicted in Kent’s philosophy under :

  • (A) 8th observation. (B) 9th observation.
  • (C) 10th observation. (D) llth observation.

39. The interpretation of Kent’s twelth observation states that:

  • (A) The medicine must be let alone.
  • (B) The medicine must be antidoted at once.
  • (C) The medicine was only a superficial remedy
  • (D) The medicine has been too late.

40. What happens when the two dissimilar diseases of different strenght meet in a living organism ^

  • (A) The weaker one will suspend the stronger one.
  • (B) Both of them will co-exist with their manifestations.
  • (C) They will be curing each other.
  • (D) The stronger one will suspend the weaker one.

41. The highest ideal of cure is :

  • (A) Slow, gentle and permanent restroation of health.
  • (B) Slow, vigorous and temporary restoration of health.
  • (C) Rapid, gentle and temporary restoration of health.
  • (D) Rapid, gentle and permanent restoration of health.

(42.) “The removal of the totality of symptoms means the removal of the disease.” This concept is reflected in :

  • (A) Aphorism 10 of Organon of Medicine.
  • (B) Aphorism 15 of Organon of Medicine.
  • (C) Aphorism 17 of Organon of Medicine.
  • (D) Aphorism 20 of Organon of Medicine.

43. When is the need to repeat the first prescription?

  • (A) When there is aggravation of the existing symptoms.
  • (B) When there is presence of additional new symptoms.
  • (C) When there is amelioration of the symptoms.
  • (D) When amelioration comes to a standstill.

 44. Which of the following miasms has the symptom-desire for cold food ?

  • (A) Psora. (B) Sycosis.
  • (C) Syphilis. (D) Tubercular.

46. In case of homoeopathic aggravation, we should :

  • (A) Antidote the medicine.
  • (B) Wait and Watch.
  • (C) Prescribe a complementary medicine.
  • (D) Repeat the medicine immediately in lower potency.

46. The modus operand! of homoeopathic medicines is explained in Organon of Medicine, in Aphorism :

  • (A) 26. (B) 25.
  • (C) 29. (D) 39.

47.  Which one of the following does not belong to “Causa Occasionalis” ?

  • (A) Strong smelling flowers cause syncope.
  • (B) Imperforte anus of infants.
  • (C) Dyspnoea from dust exposure.
  • (D) Pthisis after chest injury.

48. Mental diseases are :

  • (A) Psoric in origin-
  • (B) Psudo-psoric in origin.
  • (C) Syphilitic in origin.
  • (D) Psudo syphilitic in origin.

49. According to __, “sycosis is contagious disease which results from suppression of chronic gonorrhoea.

  • (A) Hahnemann. (B) J.T.Kenfe.
  • (C) J.H.Allen. (D) Stuart Close.

50. Accessory miasm is related to :

  • (A) Rabies vaccine. (B) Cowpox vaccine.
  • (C) Smallpox vaccine. (D) Measles vaccine.

51. The commonest precancerous lesion in the mouth is :

  • (A) Leukoplakia. (B) Submucous fibrosis.
  • (C) Bowens disease. (D) Syphilitic glossitis.

52. Following conditions are associated with carpal tunnel syndrome except:

  • (A) Myxedema. (B) Pregnancy.
  • (C) Acromegaly. (D) Poliomyelitis.

63. The following joints are usually involved in Ankylosing spondylitis except:

  • (A) Sacroilliac. (B) Wrist.
  • (C) Hip. (D) Cervical spine.

54. Secondaries in neck appear when malignancy is present in the following sites except:

  • (A) Vocal cords. (B) Abdomen.
  • (C) Pyriform fossa. (D) Nasopharynx.

55. Most common site of metastasis of lung cancer is :

  • (A) Brain. (B) Adrenals.
  • (C) Liver. (D) Bone.

66. Which of the following indicates a positive tuberculin test ?

  • (A) 10 mm erythema at 48 hrs. (B) 10 mm induration at 48 hrs.
  • (C) 5 mm induration within 1 hour. (D) 10 mm erythema + lymphoadenopathy.

67. Which of the following parasite is often associated with acute appendicitis : .

  • (A) Trichuris tritura. (B) Enterobius.
  • (C) Strongyloides. (D) Ascariasis.

68. Very high level of ESR is found in :

  • (A) Leukemia. (B) Multiple myeloma.
  • (C) Tuberculosis. (D) Amyloidosis.

69. Most common site for avascular necrosis of bone is :

  • (A) Head of femur. (B) Scapular neck.
  • (C) Lower and humerus. (D) Clavicle.

60. Deficiency of Thiamine causes :

  • (A) BeriBeri. (B) Scurvy.
  • (C) Night blindness. (D) Rickets.

61. According to Aristotle human soul is :

  • (A) Nutritive. (B) Impulsive.
  • (C) Rational. (D) None of above.

62. Marasmus of Abrotanum is charcterized by :

  • (A) Marasmus of neck. (B) Marasmus of lower extremities.
  • (C) Marasmus of breast. (D) Marasmus of whole body.

63. Which of the following medicines should be prescribed to a female—21 years of age, newly married has burning micturition and has to sit for a long period to pass urine with marked irritation at the genitals ?

  • (A) Cantharis, (B) Staphisagria.
  • (C) Nitric acid. (D) Sulphur.

64. Inordinate craving for meat in children of tuberculosis parentage is characteristic of:

  • (A) Magnesia carb. (B) Magnesia mur.
  • (C) Antimcrud. (D) Sulphur.

65. Traumatic chronic neuritis, neuralgia of stump after amputation, burning and stinging pains are characteristics of:

  • (A) Ledum Pal. (B) Staphisagria.
  • (C) Allium Cepa. (D) Hypericum.

66. Which one of the following medicines is indicated for the symptom : suicidal tendency on seeing knife or blood ?

  • (A) Arsenic Alb. r (B) Aurum Met.
  • (C) Natrum Sulph. (D) Alumina.

67. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

  • (A) Agaricus affects left shoulder and right hip joint.
  • (B) Hamamelis is the aconite of arterial capillary system.
  • (C) Abrotanum can cure marasmus of lower limbs. v
  • (D) In epilepsy indicating cuprum met., aura begins in the knees and ascends.

68. Which one of the following does not belong to the pathogenesis of Mezreum ?

  • (A) Aggravation of complaints at night.
  • (B) Ulcers with thick whitish yellow scabs.
  • (C) Teeth decay especially at the edges of the gums.
  • (D) Bad effects of vaccination.

69. Profuse perspiration after acute disease with relief of all sufferings is the peculiar symptom of;

  • (A) Mercuris. (B) Psorium.
  • (C) Sulphur. (D) Syphilium.

70. Great indignation about things done by oneself or by others is a characteristic of:

  • (A) Aurum met. (B) Staphisagria.
  • (C) Lycopodium. (D) Gelsimium.

71. Which one of the following drugs is required by a girl in her teens with nervous exhaustion with suffers from incessant and violent fidgety feeling in feet or lower extremities and moves then constantly ?

  • (A) Helleborus. (B) Kali Bromatum.
  • (C) Sulphur. (D) Zincum MetaUicum.

72. Which one of the following is not a symptom of Euphrasia in respect of menses ?

  • (A) Early.                    (B) Scanty.
  • (C) Short-duration. (D) Painful.

73. A child suffering from acute tonsillitis is presented with the symptoms of throat pain associated with pain in ears which got aggravated by Warm drinks and better by cold drinks. Which one of the following is the likely remedy ?

  • (A) Mere. Sol. (B) Belladonna.
  • (C) Arsenic album. (D) Phytolacca.

74. Which one of the following is the correct order that matches with the sequential order of ‘amelioration from coffee’, ‘aggravation from coffee’ and ‘desire for coffee’ ?

  • (A) Ignatia, Angustura, Chamomilla.
  • (B) Angustura, Ignatia, Chamomilla.
  • (C) Ignatia, Chamomilla, Angustura.
  • (D) Chamomilla, Ignatia, Angustura.

75. ‘Delusion’ is explained as false :

  • (A) Will. (B) Belief.
  • (C) Dream. (D) Memory.

76. Which one of the following is not used for grading or evaluation of the medicins in Kent’s Repertory

  • (A) Recording during proving. (B) Confirmation by reproving.
  • (C) Verification upon the sick. (D) Research on animals.

77. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is the ruble affectionate found ?

  • (A) Generalities. (B) Head.
  • (C) Mind. (D) Chest.

78. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is the sensation of formication in anus found ?

  • (A) Stool. (B) Rectum.
  • (C) Stomach. (D) Generalities.

79. Consider the following statements :

  • (1) Hahnemann’s materia medica pura as left by him had six volumes.
  • (2) Synthetic repertroy by barthel and Klunker has three volumes.
  • (3) Allen’s Encyclopaedia has 12 volumes.
  • (4) Bering’s guiding symptoms has 10 volumes.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

  • (A) 1,2, 3 and 4. (B) I and 4.
  • (C) 2, 3 and 4. (D) 1, 2 and 3.

80. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is rubric indolence found ?

  • (A) Head. (B) Generalities.
  • (C) Mind. (D) Sleep.

81. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is bloody spitting found ?

  • (A) Respiration. (B) Expectoration.
  • (C) Chest.               (D) Cough.

82. In which chapter of the Kent’ Repertory, the rubrics phimosis and paraphimosis are found ?

  • (A) Mind.                  (B) Skin.
  • (C) Generatilities. (D) Genitalia.

83. Which one of the following is the correct remedy forcaries of Fibula ?

  • (A) Acid fluoricum. (B) Silicea. •
  • (C) Hepersulph.         (D) Calendula.

84. Kent’s Repertory is a type of:

  • (A) Synthetic Repertory. (B) General Repertory.
  • (C) Regional Repertory. (D) Particular Repertory.

85. Von Boenninghausen generalised the symptoms by adopting :

  • (1) The doctrine of analogy.
  • (2) The general symptoms.
  • (3) The conceptual image of the patient.
  • (4) The common symptoms.

86. Consider the following statements :

  • (1) 10 minims of tincture and 90 minims of alcohol give 1st centesimal potency.
  • (2) 6 minims of tincture and 99 minims of dilute alcohol, the drug power tincture beingm1/6 give 1st centesimal potency.
  • (3) Preparation of mother tincture consists in three steps viz. estimation of plant moisture content, maceration and percolation.
  • (4) Drugs like bufo rana, Murex, Apis, Phytolacca, Helleborus and Naja, all belong to animal kingdom.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  • (A) land 3. (B) 3 only.
  • (C) 2 and 4. (D) 4 only>

87. Which of the symptoms given below is/are helpful for confirmation of phosphorus as the remedy ?

  • (1) Anxiety for health of others. 
  • (2) Desires salt, ice-cream, chocolates.
  • (3) Fair, fat, flabby. / (4) Sleeps on right side.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

  • (A) 3 only. (B) 1. 2 and 4.
  • (C) 1 and 3. (D) None.

88. In a suspected case of prostatic enlargement, which one of the following procedure is likely to confirm the diagnosis

  • (A) Urine examination. (B) Rectal examination.
  • (C) Ultrasonography. (D) Measuring water intake and output of urine.

89. What is the most common mode of transmission of leprosy ?

  • (A) Skin to skin contact. (B) Insect vectors.
  • (C) Through fomites. (D) Droplet infection.

90. Koplik’s spots are pathognomonic of:

  • (A) Chicken pox. (B) Dengue.
  • (C) Measles. (D) Addison’s disease.

91. Similar diseases can :

  • (A) Co-exist in patient. (B) Cannot co-exist in a patient.
  • (C) Can palliate a disease. (D) Can suppress a disease.

92. Vital force exists in :

  • (A) The curative medicine.
  • (B) The patient.
  • (C) Both in medicine and the patient.
  • (D) The palliative medicine.

93. A second disease when dissimilar to the first disease :

  • (A) Always cures. (B) Never cures.
  • (C) Always Palliates. (D) Never Palliates.

94. Organon of medicine was first published in :

  • (A) 1810 A.D. (B) 1710 A.D.
  • (C) 1810 B.C. (D) 1710 B.C.

96. Hahnemann :

  • (A) Invented Law of similars. (B) Discovered Law of similars.
  • (C) Invented Law of contraria. (D) None of the above.

96. Chronic diseases have :

  • (A) Very rapid course and very abrupt onset.
  • (B) Very lingering course and very slow onset.
  • (C) Very rapid course and very slow onset.
  • (D) Very lingering course and very abrupt onset.

97. Nature’s law of cure is found in :

  • (A) Allopathy. (B) Homoeopathy.
  • (C) Isopathy. (D) Enantiopathy.

98. A homoeopathician may use medicines according to the :

  • (A) Law of similia only.
  • (B) Laws of similia and contrariis.
  • (C) Laws of similia, contrariia and dissimilia.
  • (D) Laws of similia and isopathia.

99. The phrase “Aude Sapere” was coined by :

  • (A) Hippocrates. (B) Hahnemann.
  • (C) Horace             (D) Hufeland.

100. In the western recorded history the law of simila was first mentioned by :

  • (A) Hahnemann. (B) Hippocrates.
  • (C) Galen.               (D) Aristotle.

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Comments

6 Responses so far.

  1. Smruti Ranjan Panda says:

    please mention the answer paper

  2. DR.YOGESH B. MAHORE says:

    THANKS

  3. sir pls reply ans key in my mail

  4. Dr.Chunoti Sai says:

    sir please reply ans key in my mail

  5. atul pandey says:

    sir please fast reply ans key in my mail

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