Date posted: October 26, 2011

 A  Series
Time: 75 Minutes      Maximum: 100 Marks


  1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
  2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
  3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
  4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in the address list/seating position, pl~ase draw the attention ofthe Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
  5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code ..
  6. Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
  7. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
  8. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question liooklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
  9. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for rough work.
  10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
  11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
  12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
  13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
  14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1. Enzyme deficiency in Diabetes Mellitus is :
(A) Glycokinase     (B) Hexokinase
(C) Phosphorylase (D) Phosphate dehydrogenase

2. Herberden nodes are seen in :
(A) Rheumatoid Arthritis (B) Rheumatic Arthritis
(C) S.L.E.                    (D) Osteoarthritis

3. Japanese Encephalitis is caused by:
(A) Human retrovirus (B) Enterovirus
(C) Arbovirus           (D) Cytomegalovirus

C. Normal human requirement of Potassium per day is:
(A) 100meq.    (B) 120 meq.
(C) 130 meq.   (D) 150 meq.

5. Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is :
(A) Aspergillosis (B) Cryptococcosis
(C) Candidiasis  (B) Tuberculosis

6. Cavernous breathing is seen in:
(A) Calung            (B) Consolidation
(C) Pleural effusion (D) Cavity lung

7. Diagnosis of typhoid fever in the first week is by :
(A) Widal test     (B) Stool culture
(C) Urine culture  (D) Blood culture

8. pH of gastric acid is :
(A) 1.5 to 2.0   (B) 0.5 to 2.5 .
(C) 2.3 to 3     (D) 3 to 3.5

9.Daily requirement of Vitamin K in adult is :
(A) 10-20 microgram    (B)20-50 microgram .
(C) 70-140 microgram   (D)More than 150 microgram

10. Diagnostic characteristic in Carcinoma prostrate with metastasis is raise in :
(A) ESR                   (B) Alakline phosphatase
(C) Acid phosphatase (D)Bilirubin

11. Commonest degenerative joint disease is :
(A) Gout                      (B) Osteoporosis
(C) Rheumatoid Arthritis (D) Osteoarthritis

12. Most common bone fracture in body is :
(A) Clavicle   (B) Femur
(C) Radius    (D) Vertebra

13. Herpes ‘Zoster is commonly seen in :
(A) Cervical region   (B) Geniculate ganglia
(C) Lumbar region    (D) Thoracic region

14. Causative organism of Molluscum Contagiosum is :
(A) Papova virus       (B) Pox virus
(C) Orthomyxo virus  (D) Parvo virus

15.Which of the following infection has the most neurological complications :
(A) Measles        (B) Rubella
(C) Scarlet fever (D) Small pox

16.Normal heart rate per minute at birth is :
(A) 60-80     (B) 80-110
(C) 70-120   (D) 110-150

17 . Kwashiorkor is due to:
(A) Protein deficiency           (C)Energy deficiency
(B) Malabsorption of Vitamins (D) Protein and energy deficiency

18. Iron is absorbed actively in the:
(A) Stomach         (B) Duodenum
(C) Lower jejunum (D) Proximal ileum

19. Liver does not produce:
(A) Albumin     (B) Gama globulin
(C) Fibrinogen  (D) Prothrombin

20. Main function of Mitochondria is :
(A)Protein synthesis (B)Oxidation
©Electron transfer   (D) Fat synthesis

21. Ketone body formation takes place in :
(A) Liver    (B) Kidney
(C) Spleen  (D) Blood

22.Sensation of coldness about the heart is the symptom of:
(A) Petroleum (B) Cactus G
(C) Digitalis (D) Naja

23. Palpitation before and during menses is present in :
(A) Ammonium carb (B) Natrum mur
(C) Spongia.          (D) Sepia

24. Toothache from tobacco sqlOking is the symptom of:
(A) Tabacum (B) Nuxvom
(C) Coffea    (D) Spigelia

25. Cannot walk on uneven ground is present in :
(A) Lachesis (B) Lobelia
(C) Lyssin    (D) Lil. tig

26. The medicine for acute affection of prostrate after maltreated stricture is :
(A) Merc bin-iodide     (B) Merc cynide
(C) Merc proto-iodide  (D) Merc dulcis…

27. Pain from naval to uterus is the symptom in:
(A) Cimicifuga   (B) Colocynthis
(C) Ipecac       (D) Magphos

28. Constipation on going to sea is treated with:
(A)D Bryonia alb   (B) Platina
(C) Plumb met      (D) Sepia

29. Pain as if bones were torn into pieces is present in :
(A) Eup per    (C) Theridion
(B) Ipecac     (D) Thuja

30. Convulsions during teething with fever is the symptom in :
(A) Acon nap   (B) Belladonna
(C) Cicuta       (D) Mag Phos

31. Convulsion during teething without fever is characteristic of:
(A) Acon nap   (C) Cup met
(B) Belladonna (D) Mag phos

32. Cough with expectoration of green mucus is a symptom of:
(A) Bryonia (B) Kali carb
(C) Benzoic acid (D) Rhus tox

33. Pain and numbness in right ovary, running down the thigh of that side is present in :
(A) Coniummac    (B) Medorrhinum
(C) Podophyllum. (D) Psorinum

34. Nosebleed when menses should appear is symptom in:
(A) Bryonia     (B) China
(C) Millifolium  (D) Sanguinaria

35. Cough relieved by drinking cold water is one of the symptom of :
(A) Cuprum met (B) Drosera
(C) Kali carb     (D) Spongia

36. Vertigo on seeing the flowing water is present in :
(A) Belladonna   (B) Conium mac
(C) Cocculus     (D) Fer. Met

37 . Convulsion of children after fright in mother is in :
(A) Opium       (B) Coffea
(C) Chamoinilla (D) Aconite

38. Vomiting in any position except lying on right side is in:
(A) Antim tart   (B) Aethusa
(C) Ipecac       (D) Verat alb

39. Sweat in axilla, smells like onions is a symptom in :
(A) Bovista       (B) Thuja
(C) Phosphorus  (D) Silicea

40. Dryness of eyes; too dry to close the lids is the symptom in :
(A) Bryonia     (B) Cyclamen
(C) Nuxmosch (D) Thuja

41. Pain in distant parts on coughing is a symptom in:
(A) Causticum   (B) Capsicum
(C) China         (D) Plumb met

42. Body large and fat, but legs too thin is type of :
(A) Silicea            (B) Cal- phos
(C) Ammonium mur (D) Ammonium carb

43. Children; impudent, teasing, laugh at reprimands is found in:
(A) Anacardium  (B) Graphites
(C) Ignatia        (D) Nitic acid

44. Can only void urine while sitting bent backwards is characteristic of:
(A) Conium        (B) Hep-sulph
(C) Medorrhinum (D) Zincum met.

45. Feels unusually well day before an acute attack of disease:
(A) Opium         (B) Psorinum
(C) Stramonium (D) Verat vir

46. Dyspnoea aggravated while sitting, after sleep, in room; relieved by walking rapidly is found in:
(A) Can. sat       (B) Kali carb
(C) Natrum sulph (D) Sepia

47. Cough returns every winter:
(A) Hep. sulph (B) Psorinum
(C) Sepia       (D) Silicea

48. Always feels better by walking slowly about, although weakness obliges the patient to lie down:
(A) Causticum((B) Diascorea
(C) Ferr met (D) (D) Sepia

49. Sailors suffer from asthma at “onshore”
(A) Spongia       (B) Natrum sulph
(C) Medorrhinum (D) Bromium

50. Palpitation: violent when lying on left side, goes off when turning to the right:
(A) Calc ars     (B) Lac defloratum
(C) Tabacum    (D) Lachesis

51. First edition of Organon was published in the year of:
(A) 1796 (B) 1810
(C) 1798 (D) 1800

52. Theory of Chronic disease was introduced for the first time in which edition of Organon:
(A) 2nd edition (B) 3rd edition
(C) 4th edition (D) 5th edition

53. Aude Sapere has originated from:
(A) Latin     (B) Greek
(C) German (D) Hibru

54. Hahnemann died in the city of:
(A) Kothen (B) Leipzig
(C) London (D) Paris

55. Essays on a new principle for ascertaining the curative power of drugs was published by Hahnemann in :
(A) 1790    (B) 1795
(C) 1796    (D) 1798

56. Homoeopathy is based on :
(A) Deductive logic (B) Inductive logic
(C) Both.              (D) None

57. “Fragmenta de Viribus ….. Human observatis” was published in the year:
(A) 1796     (B) 1800
(C) 1805     (D) 1779

58.Homoeopathic concept says mental diseases are:
(A) Psoric origin     (B) Pseudo-psoric in origin
(C) Acute diseases   (D) Pseudo-chronic diseases-

59. Most appropriate time for administering the medicines in epidemic or sporadic intermittent fever is:
(A) Immediately before the paroxysm                   (B) Any time before paroxysm
(C) Immediately after the termination of paroxysm  (D) Any time after the paroxysm

60. The name “50 Millesimal potency” was given by:
(A) Dr. C. Hering       (B) Dr. Hahnemann
(C) Dr. W. Boericke    (D) Dr. P. Schmidt

61. The word “Miasam” originated from:
(A) Greek (B) German
(C) Latin  (D) French

62. Hahnemann was not averse to external applications for the treatment of:
(A) Chancre (B) Veneral miasam
(C) Figwarts (D) N one of the above

63. The term Pseudo-Psora was first used by:
(A) Dr. J. T. Kent (B) Dr. J. H. Allen
(C) Dr. H.C. Allen (D) Dr. T. F. Allen

64. A prolonged aggravation and final decline of the patient interprets that:
(A) The medicine is not correct (B) The disease is an incurable one.
(C) The medicine is too deep    (D) The patient is idiosyncratic

65. No aggravation, with recovery of the patient means:
(A) The remedy is shallow and short acting (B) The potency is suitable
(C) Slight organic change                         (D) The disease is organic and incurable

66. Which observation of Kent does not cover the disease state:
(A) 3rd Observation     (B) 12th Observation
(C) 9th Observation     (D) All the above

67. Number of drugs proved by Dr. Hahnemann:
(A) 97 (B) 98
(C) 99 (D) 100

68. Mesmerism was introduced in which edition of Organon:
(A) 2nd (B) 3rd
(C) 5th (D) 6th

69. Accessory symptoms are found in :
(A) Acute diseases (B) Chronic diseases
(C) In drug proving (D) After 1st Prescription

70. In Kent’s Repertory rubric “Dream” is found in :
(A) Sleep (B) Generalities
(C) Mind  (D) Head

71. In Kent’s repertory, “Shaving aggravates” is found in the chapter:
(A) Face          (B) Skin
(C) Generalities (D) Conditions

72. In Kent’s Repertory, number of sections is :
(A) 37    (B) 38
(C) 31   (D) 33

73. First edition of Kent’s Repertory was published in the year:
(A) 1894 (B) 1897
(C) 1899 (D) 1900

74. Sixth edition of Kent’s Repertory was published in the year:
(A) 1840   (B) 1900
(C) 1925   (D) 1961

75. In Kent’s Repertory, rubric “Convulsion” is to be looked in :
(A) Head          (B) Mind
(C) Generalities (D) Dreams

76. The plan of Repertory part of Therapeutic Pocket Book by Boenningauessen is divided into:
(A) Four parts   (B) Eight parts
(C) Five parts   (D) Seven parts

77. The first edition of Therapeutic Pocket Book by Boenningauessen was published in the year:
(A) 1837 (B) 1931
(C) 1935 (D) 1938

78. The Concordance Repertory is :
(A) Gentry’s (B) Kent’s
(C) Boger’s  (D) Pathak’s

79. “The doctrine of Analogy” concept is given by :
(A) Boericke (B) Boenningauessen
(C) Knerr     (D) Kent

80. Boenningauessen’s Repertory was translated to English by:
(A) Boericke       (B) Boger
(C) William Oscar (D) Knerr

81. Largest chapter in Kent’s Repertory is :
(A) Mind          (B) Extremities
(C) Generalities (D) Genitalia

82. Smallest chapter in Kent’s Repertory is :
(A) Vision (B) Hearing’
(C) Dream (D) External throat

83. Gradation of medicines is first done by :
(A) Dr. Hering               (B) Dr. Boger
(C) Dr. Boenningauessen (D) Dr. Hahnemann

84. “Therapeutic Pocket Book” by Boenningauessen was originally written in:
(A) English (B) Latin
(C) German (D) Greek

85. “Therapeutic Pocket Book” by Boenningauessen had originally:
(A) 124 remedies (B) 126 remedies
(C) 136 remedies (D) 156 remedies

86. Kent started his works on repertory from:
(A) Lee’s Repertory                   (B) Lippe’s Repertory
(C) Boenningauessen’s Repertory (D) Jhar’s Repertory

87. Eliminating Rubric was first introduced in Homoeopathy by:
(A) Margret Tyler        (B) Sir John Weir
(C) None of the above (D) Both the above

88. The word Rubric originated from the word:
(A) Rubra    (B) Rubus
(C) Rubrera (D) Rubrika

89. In Kent’s Repertory, the complaint “Ailments from bad news” can be located in the Rubric:
(A) Ailments (B) Bad
(C) News    (D) Complaints

90. In Kent’s Repertory, “Tabes Messenterica” is found in the chapter:
(A) Abdomen  (B) Generalities
(C) Rectum    (D) Stomach

91. Repertory of the intermittent Fever is written by :
(A) W. A. Allen (B) H. C. Allen
(D) Boger        (C) Gurnessy

92. Globule No. 10 having weight 1 grain is equivalent to:
(A) 1 globule     (B) 10 globules
(C) 100 globules (D) 200 globules

93. Science that deals with different aspects of the drug is called:
(A) Pharmacy         (B) Pharmacology
(C) Pharmocognesy (D) Pharmocodynamics

94. British Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia by the Homoeopathic Society was published in:
(A) 1850 (B) 1860
(C) 1870 (D) 1890

95. The first volume of the HPI was published by Government of India in the year:
(A) 1962 (B) 1971
(C) 1976 (D) 1978

96. The Eighth Volume of HPI published by Government of India was in the year:
(A) 1998 (B) 2000
(C) 2002 (D) 2004

97. By the method of sucussion Hahneman made potencies up to:
(A) 30X (B) 60X
(C) 30C (D) 60C

98. The process of passing a liquid through some porous medium is :
(A) Straining (B) Decantation
(C) Desiccation (D) Filtration

99. The drug Causticum belongs to :
(A) Sodium Group (B) Calcium Group
(C) Carbon Group (D) Potassium Group

100. One dessertspoonful is equivalent to:.
(A) 4ml  (B) 8ml
(C) 15ml (D) 20 ml 

This is a question paper of Kerala Public Service Commission Homeopathy Medical Officer  Examinations 2007

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