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Date posted: October 27, 2011

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2.For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

1. Which of the following is a cause of bilateral lower motor neuron facial palsy?

  • (A) Mumps
  • (B) Leprosy
  • (C) Tabes dorsolis
  • (D) Sarcoidosis 

2. If husband is sex linked receiver and wife is normal which of the following will snuffed from the disease?

  • (A) Daughters
  • (B) Grand daughters
  • (C) Daughter’s son
  • (D) Son’s daughter

3. The commonest cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:

  • (A) Steroids
  • (B) Adrenal tumour
  • (C) Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia  (D) Tuberculosis

4. In nephrotic syndrome, levels of following serum proteins decreases except:

  • (A) Albumin
  • (B) Transferrin
  • (C) Fibrinogin
  • (D) Ceruloplasmin

5. Hypokalemia occurs in:

  • (A) Meningitis
  • (B) Hepatitis
  • (C) Osteomylitis
  • (D) Bronchiectasis

6. Common presentation of primary Hyperparathyroidism is:

  • (A) Gallstone
  • (B) Abdominal pain
  • (C) Recurrent abortion
  • (D)) Subtle neurological and psychiatric symptoms

7. Earliest sensation lost in Diabetic Neuropathy:

  • (A) Weakness of small muscles of hand.
  • (B) Temperature
  • (C) Pain
  • (D) Vibration

8. Region of spine most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis:

  • (A) Cervical
  • (B) Thoracic
  • (C) Lumbar
  • (D) Sacral

9. Vit-B deficiency causes:

  • (A) Haemorrhage
  • (B) C.N.S. affected
  • (C) Fits
  • (D) Depression

10. Diagnostic of fresh M. I.:

  • (A) Waves
  • (B) S. T. depression
  • (C) S.T. elevation
  • (D) U-waves

11. Irradiation causes:

  • (A) Osteosarcoma
  • (B) Paget’s disease of breast
  • (C) Paget’s disease of skin
  • (D) Ewing ’s tumour

12.Egg shell – calcification of hilar lymphnodes is characteristically seen in:

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Sarcoidosis
  • (C) Teratoma
  • (D) Silicosis

13. All are seen in right border of heart in chest X-Ray except:

  • (A) IVC
  • (B) SVC
  • (C) Right Atrium
  • (D) Ascending aorta

14. What is emission of Radium?

  • (A) Electron
  • (B) Gamma Rays
  • (C) X-Rays
  • (D) All of the above

15. In a case of suspected left pleural effusion, X-Ray chest should be done in:

  • (A) Left lateral position.
  • (B) Left lateral decubitus position.
  • (C) Right lateral decubitus position.
  • (D) A. P. view supine.

16. The commonest symptom of foreign body in bronchus a child is:

  • (A) Cough
  • (B) Vomiting
  • (C) Dyspnoea
  • (D) Wheezing

17. The commonest  of nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Fossa of Rosenmuller) is:

  • (A) Epistaxis
  • (B) Hoarseness
  • (C) Nasal block
  • (1)) Deafness

18. The commonest cause of epistaxis in an elderly is:

  • (A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • (B) Trauma
  • (C) Hyper tension
  • (D) Antro choanal polyp

19. In a 4 year old with ASOM, commonest organism is:

  • (A) Pneumococcus
  • (B) Staphylococcus
  • (C) Strepto coccus
  • (D) H.Influenza

20. Which of the following is characteristic of T. B. Otitis Media?

  • (A) Multiple perforations.
  • (B) Large central perforation.
  • (C) Marginal perforation.
  • (D) Attic perforation.

21 The earliest change noticed in hypertensive Retinopathy is:

  • (A) Hard exudate
  • (B) Arterial spasm
  • (C) Venus spasm
  • (D) Soft exudate

22. Most toxic intra ocular foreign body is:

  • (A) Iron
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Lead
  • (D) Glass

23. Sub-conjunctival haemorrhage maybe seen in:

  • (A) Rabies
  • (B) Measles
  • ( Mumps
  • (D) Pertusis

24. Normal size of optic disc is:

  • (A) 2.0mm
  • (B) 2.5mm
  • (C)1 1.5mm
  • (D)1.0mm

25. Impaired colour vision is seen in:

  • (A) Papilloedema
  • (B) Papillitis
  • (C) Toxic Amblyopia
  • (D) Eales disease

26. The local anaesthesia is contra indicated in:

  • (A) Diabetic gangrene of foot
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Intermittent Claudication
  • (D) All of the above

27. All of the following are Vaso-dilators except:

  • (A) Cocaine
  • (B) Mepi vacaine
  • (C) Procaine
  • (D) Lignocaine

28. Colour of oxygen cylinder is:

  • (A) Blue
  • (B) Black & White
  • (C) Grey
  • (D) Orange

29. Hallucinations may be produced by:

  • (A) Halothane
  • (B) TCE
  • (C) N
  • (D) Ketarnine

30. Broncho spasm is caused by:

  • (A) Morphine
  • (B) N
  • (C) Halothane
  • (D) Isoflurane

31. Erosive arthritis is seen in all except:

  • (A) Gout
  • (B) Osteo arthritis
  • (C) SLE
  • (D) Hyper parathyroidism

32. In Gout the crystals are:

  • (A) Calcium phyrophosphate.
  • (B) Mono sodium urate.
  • (C) Mono potassium urate.
  • (D) Double phosphate.

33. Angular Kyphosis is most commonly produced by:

  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Senile osteoporosis
  • (C) T1 of spine
  • (D) Hyperparathyroidism

34. Commonest site of prolapsed intervertebral disc is in between:

  • (A) C5-C6
  • (B) C7-Ti
  • (C) T12 – Li
  • (D) L4-L5&L5—Si

35. Plaster of paris chemically is:

  • (A) Calcium Sulphate.
  • (B) Calcium Phosphate.
  • (C) Hydrated Calcium Sulphate.
  • (D) Hemi hydrated Calcium Sulphate.

36. Tetanus neonatorum is best prevented by giving injection Tetanus Toxide to:

  • (A) Foetus after birth.
  • (B) Mother in 1st trimester.
  • (C) Mother in 2 & 3 trimester.
  • (D) Foetus at 3  month of age.

37. Which of the following is true about Iron deficiency anaemia?

              Total Iron Binding                    Serum Iron

  • Capacity (TIBC)
  • (A) Decreased                       Decreased
  • (B) Increased                         Increased
  • (C) Increased                         Decreased
  • (D) Decreased                        Increased

38. The most common complication of mumps in children:

  • (A) Appendicitis
  • (B) Pancreatitis
  • (C) Aseptic Meningitis
  • (D) Orchitis

39. In a newborn, liver is 1 cm. enlarged. The child has:

  • (A) Hemolytic disease
  • (B) Malaria
  • (C) Nutritional cirrhosis
  • (D) Normal development

40. Hemolytic disease in new born is seen if  Rh factor in:
MOTHER         FOETUS

  • (A)   Positive         Negative
  • (B)   Negative        Positive
  • (C)   Positive         Positive
  • (D)   Negative        Negative

41. Poor prognostic feature in schizophrenia:

  • (A) Family history of schizophrenia
  • (B) Late onset
  • (C) Affective symptoms
  • (D) Severe precipitating cause

42. False perception without stimulus is:

  • (A) Illusion
  • (B) Delusion
  • (C) Hallucination
  • (D) Dela Vj

43. Alcohol dependence is best indicated by:

  • (A) Early morning drinking.
  • (B) Physical con complications
  • (D) Withdrawal symptoms.

44. The characteristic symptom of organic psychosis is:

  • (A) Anxiety
  • (B) Depression
  • (C) Hallucination
  • (D) Transient delusion

45. In Lithium toxicity, following organs are affected except:

  • (A) Kidney
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Brain
  • (D) Heart

46. Acrodermatitis is seen due to the deficiency of:

  • (A) Zinc
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Iron
  • (D) Pyridoxine

47. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by:

  • (A) Epidermophyton
  • (B) Malezzia furfur
  • (C) Fungus
  • (D) Trichophyton

48. Incubation period of syphilis is:

  • (A) 2-7days
  • (B) 15 – 20 days
  • (C) 9 – 90 days
  • (D) 2-6 weeks

49. Umbilicated white pearly papule is seen in:

  • (A) Chicken pox
  • (B) Small pox
  • (C) Herpes Zoster
  • (D) Molluscum contagiosunt

50. A patient with single hypopigmented anaesthetic patch with satellite lesions on fore arm. Most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Tuberculoid leprosy
  • (B) Indeterminate leprosy
  • (C) Neuritic leprosy
  • (D) Lepromatous leprosy

51. Carcinoma cervix may be caused by:

  • (A) Herpes simplex
  • (B) Papilloma virus
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Trichomones

52. The least common complication of fibroid is:

  • (A) Calcification
  • (B) Red-degeneration
  • (C) Hyaline change
  • (D) Malignancy

53. The commonest cause of post partum Haemorrhage is:

  • (A) Vaginal laceration
  • (B) Coagulapathy
  • (C) Cervical t
  • (D) Uterine atony

54. Best sign of Toxaemia of pregnancy:

  • (A) Diastolic blood pressure> 100 mm / Hg
  • (B) Urine outpl4t 400 cc
  • (C) Albuminuria 1 grm per 24 hours
  • (D) Oedema

55. Commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is:

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Cervix
  • (C) Tubes
  • (D) Abdomen

56. The dose of iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is:

  • (A) 20 mg.
  • (B) 60mg.
  • (C) 120mg.
  • (D) 180mg.

57. Iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is started at:

  • (A) 6 weeks
  • (B) 10 weeks
  • (C) 16 weeks
  • (D) 18 weeks

58. Rachety pelvis is characterised by all of the following except:

  • (A) Wide outlet
  • (B) Wide interspinous diameter
  • (C) Leniform brim
  • (D) False premontory

59. The commonest cause of vulvovaginitis in children is:

  • (A) Gonococcus
  • (B) Trichomoniasis
  • (C) Oxyuriasis
  • (D) Candida

60. Pregnancy can be first diagnosed by ultra sound at:

  • (A) 2weeks
  • (B) 5 weeks
  • (C) 12 weeks
  • (D) 16 weeks

61. Tuberculosis of genital tract is commonest in:

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Cervix
  • (C) Vulva
  • (D) Tubes

62. The commonest congenital anamoly of uterus is:

  • (A) Bicomuate Bicollis
  • (B) Bicornuate Unicollis
  • (C) Unicomuate Bicollis
  • (D) Unicomuate Unicollis

63. The commonest ovarian tumour in a lady aged 20-30 years is:

  • (A) Mucinous cystadenoma
  • (B) Thecoma
  • (C) Dysge
  • (D) Serous cystadenoma

64. In pregnant woman at 6 weeks have an ovarian mass 5 x 5 cms and, at 15 weeks have an ovarian mass 2 x 2 cms. The diagnosis is:

  • (A) Graffian follicle cyst
  • (B) Corpus luteum cyst
  • (C) Dermoid cyst
  • (D) Luteum of pregnancy

65. Longest part of fallopian tube:

  • (A) Interstitial
  • (B) Isthmal
  • (C) Ampullary
  • (D) Infundibulum

66. Which of the following disease does not transmit through placenta?

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Measles
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Gonorrhoea

67. Common cause of habitual abortion:

  • (A) Hormone deficiency
  • (B) Fault on ovum
  • (C) Sexual transmitted disease
  • (D) Uterine abnormalities

68. Metrorrhagia in fibroid indicates:

  • (A) Ulceration of sub-mucus fibroid
  • (B) Ovarian tumour
  • (C) Twisting
  • (D) Pregnancy

69. With severe pain and bleeding of 28 weeks of pregnancy, diagnosis is:

  • (A) Premature labour
  • (B) Placenta previa
  • (C) Accidental haemorrhage
  • (D) Threatened abortion

70. Vaccine contra-indicated in pregnancy is:

  • (A) Tuberculin
  • (B) Influenza
  • (C) Typhoid
  • (D) Hepatitis-B

71. To differentiate the cause of splenomegaly – best is:

  • (A) Bone marrow
  • (B) Splenic pulp smear
  • (C) Spleno portography
  • (D) Peripheral smear

72. Commonest site of peptic ulcer:

  • (A) Antrum of stomach
  • (B) Pylorus
  • (C) Anterior part of duodenum
  • (D) Posterior part of duodenum

73. Sub-dural haemorrhage is commonly because of rupture of

  • (A) Anterior cerebral artery
  • (B) Middle cerebral artery
  • (C) Posterior cerebral artery
  • (D) Dural sinuses

74. Cleft lip is ideally repaired at:

  • (A) 4weeks
  • (B) 6 week
  • (C) 9 months
  • (D) 1 year

75. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumours is:

  • (A) Tongue
  • (B) Cheek
  • (C) Palate
  • (D) Neck

76.The commonest lumbar epidural tumour in children is:

  • (A ) DERMOID
  • (B) FIBROMA
  • (C) Neuroblostoma
  • (D) Chardoma

77. Useful test for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism:

  • (A) T.S.H.
  • (B) T3 T4
  • (C) Biopsy
  • (D) Scan

78. The root cause for pyogenic liver abscess is:

  • (A) Biliary sepsis
  • (B) Stone
  • (C) Appendicitis
  • (D) Ulcerative colitis

79. 21 years unmarried female has pre-mensfrual fullness of breast is due to:

  • (A) Fibro adenoma
  • (B) Fibro adinosis
  • (C) Galactococle
  • (D) Abscess

80. Best artery for coronary angiography:

  • (A) Brachial
  • (B) Femoral
  • (C) Carotid
  • (D) Axillary

81. Painless swelling below hyoid bone – most common diagnosis is:

  • (A) Thyroglossal cyst
  • (B) Ectopic thyroid
  • (C) Lymphnode
  • (D) Brachial cyst

82. Not seen in undescended testis:

  • (A) Hernia
  • (B) Teratoma
  • (C) Hydrocele
  • (D) Seminoma

83. Most common site of metastasis from cancer kidney is:

  • (A) Bone
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Brain
  • (D) Lungs

84. Most common symptom of cancer bladder:

  • (A) Haematuria
  • (B) Urinary incontinence
  • (C) Pain
  • (D) Fever

85. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction:

  • (A) Thrombosis
  • (B) Emboli
  • (C) Arteritis
  • (D) Cysticercosis

86. Commonest cause of adrenal insufficiency in India is:

  • (A) T. B.
  • (B) Auto immune
  • (C) Steroid withdrawal
  • (D) Surgery

87. In post-burn patient, following is seen:

  • (A) Hypo Kalemic Acidosis
  • (B) Hypo Kalemic Alkalosis
  • (C) Hyper Kalemic Alkalosis
  • D) Hyper Kalemic Acidosis

88. Bleeding per rectum is present in following except:

  • (A) Ulcerative colitis
  • (B) Meckelis diverticulurn
  • (C) Rectal Carcinoma
  • (D) Sigmoid Valvulus

89. Which Hernia is least likely to strangulate?

  • (A) Direct Inguinal Hernia
  • (B) Indirect Inguinal Hernia
  • (C) Femoral Hernia
  • (D) Umbilical Hernia

90. Surgery in Varicose Vein is contra indicated:

  • (A) Varicose vein with leg ulcer.
  • (B) Deep vein thrombosis.
  • (C) Multiple incompetent perforators.
  • (D) All of the above.

91. Diarrhoea is caused by following except:

  • (A) Reo virus
  • (B) Calci virus
  • (C) Entero virus
  • (D) Adeno virus

92. False about filaria is:

  • (A) Man is intermediate host.
  • (B) Adult worms are found in lymphatics of man.
  • (C) Culex is a vector.
  • (D) Life span of microfilaria is not exactly known.

93. Cholera true is:

  • (A) Cholera Toxin acts on GM, receptor.
  • (B) Mortality is more with eltor.
  • (C) Activates cycle AMP.
  • (D) Is neurotoxic.

94. Gonococcus does not cause involvement of:

  • (A) Epidydimis
  • (B) Testis
  • (C) Prostate
  • (D) Ant-urethra

95. True about lepra bacilli are:

  • (A) Anti leprosy vaccine gives life long protection.
  • (B) I.N.H. inhibits their growth.
  • (C) Incubation period is 3-4 months.
  • (D) Microbacterium leprae can be grown in foot pad of mice.

96. Most common cause of Acute Coryza:

  • (A) Influenza virus
  • (B) R.S.V.
  • (C) Corona virus
  • (D) Rhino virus

97. Immunoglobulin which crosses placental barrier is:

  • (A )lgG
  • (B) 1gM
  • (C) IgD
  • (D) IgE

98. For HTLV-III infection (AIDS) – the most specific test is:

  • (A) ELISA test
  • (B) Manospot test
  • (C) Weston blot test
  • (D) Virus culture

99. Negri bodies are most often found in:

  • (A) Midbrain
  • (B) Hippo campus
  • (C) Basal ganglia
  • (D) Frontal cortex

100. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:

  • (A) HBs AG is used
  • (B) IgG and HBC
  • (C) HBcAg
  • (D) HBeAg

101. The Homeopathic law of nature and a provisional explanation of it:

  • (A) Sec. 26 – 35
  • (B) Sec. 36 – 40
  • (C) Sec. 99 -104
  • (D) Sec. 52 – 55

102. Clinical varieties of Acute Diseases ,

  • (A) Sec. 73
  • (B) Sec. 153
  • (C) Sec. 118
  • (D) Sec 150

103.Where the aggravation is quick, short and strong with rapid improvement of the patient

  • (A) 1st observation of Kent
  • (B) 5th observation of Kent
  • (C) 3rd observation of Kent
  • (D) 12th observation of Kent

104. At the present day advanced thinkers are speaking of the fault state of matter which is immaterial substance:

  • (A) Boger
  • (B) Robert
  • (C) Dunham
  • (D) J.T.Kent

105. “The removal of the totality of symptoms means removal of the cause”, is the statement of:

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Dedgeon
  • (D) J.T.Kent

106. The “Friend of Health” was written by:

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Kent
  • (C) J E Park
  • (D) Socrates

107. “Whenjni,tealth she could not live without her daily dram consequently could not recover without it “ is the statement of:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) Hahnemann

108. “Psora – It is the mother of all true chronic diseases except the syphilitic and sycotic” Aphorism:

  • (A) Sec. 70 – 71
  • (B) Sec. 120 121
  • (C) Sec. 81-82
  • (D) Sec. 76-77

109. Inappropriately called chronic diseases:

  • (A) Sec. 69 – 70
  • (B) Sec. 40 – 42
  • (C) Sec. 74 – 75
  • (D) Sec. 77

110. “Scurvy is produced by a system of diet opposite to this, therefore it may be cured by ‘ a dietetic course. The reverse of that which produced it” is said by:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Halinemann
  • (D) Kent

111. “The Friend of Health” was published at Frankjoet in the year:

  • (A) 1792
  • (B) 1790
  • (C) 1796
  • (D) 1810

112. “The Medicine of experience’ was written by:

  • (A) Jahr
  • (B) Boenninghausen
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Hahnemann

113. “The cell lives for itself” says:

  • (A) Hahnemarin
  • (B) Huges
  • (C) Burnet
  • (D) Carpenter

114. “The subjects of Anatomy, Physiology are not life, but only results of life” is said by:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Hahnemann

115. 6th edition of organon consists of Aphorism:

  • (A) 291
  • (B) 294
  • (C) 292
  • (D) 293

116. Animal magnetism, mesmarism in Aphorism in 6th Edition:

  • (A) 288, 289
  • (B) 278, 279
  • (C) 281, 282
  • (D) 286, 287

117.Massage in aphorism

  • (A) 280
  • (B) 270
  • (C) 260
  • (D) 290

118. Diet in acute diseases — Aphorism:

  • (A) 259 – 261
  • (B) 267 – 268
  • (C) 142 – 143
  • (D) 262 – 263

119. The manuscript of 6th Edition was left ready by our master ‘Hahnemann in the year’:

  • (A) 1846
  • (B) 1842
  • (C) 1921
  • (D) 1890

120. Thus Homeopathy like a candle stick of the Hebrew Tabernacle has been shaped by Hammering not by casting as was aptly remarked by:

  • (A) C.Dunham
  • (B) Dudgeen .
  • (C) Hughes
  • (D) Hahnemann

121. Necrosis of bones are found in Kent Repertory in chapter:

  •  A) Generalities
  • (B) Extremities
  • (C) In (A)&(B)
  • (D) Not given

122. I Repertory in English language was published by:

  • (A) J.T.Kent
  • (B) Dr. Lippe
  • (C) Dr.C.Hering
  • (D) Dr. P. Schmidth

123. He is the father of Homeopathic repertory:

  • (A) Boenninghausen
  • (B) Jahr
  • (C) Lippe
  • (D) Hahnemann

124. In Kent Repertory where do we find Milk Absent?

  • (A) Generalities
  • (B) Glands
  • (C) Chest
  • (D) Not given

125. He was the first person to evaluate remedies:

  • (A) Boenninghausen
  • (B) Kent
  • (C) Hahnemann
  • (D) Jahr

126. Blue Leucorrhoea — in Kent Repertory:

  • (A) Ambragracia
  • (B) Sepia
  • (C) Hydrastis
  • (D) Alumina

127. First Card Repertory available to profession in the year:

  • (A) 1892 4
  • (B) 1982
  • (C) 1888
  • (D) 1891

128. Synthetic repertory in the year:

  • (A) 1982
  • (B) 1892
  • (C) 1897
  • (D) 1981

129. In Kent Repertory – cross-reference given for HUMOROUS is:

  • (A) Mood
  • (B) Jesting
  • (C) Joy
  • (D) Joyous

130. Awkwardness is found in B. B. C. R.:

  • (A) Extremities
  • (B) Mind
  • (C) Sensorium
  • (D) Sensation

131. If vertigo and headache be very persistent or prostration be prolonged after Nat Mur , will relieve:

  • (A) Gels
  • (B) Apis
  • (C) Glonoine
  • (D) Nux-vom

132. Believes that she is going to die soon that she cannot be helped:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Hydrastis
  • (C) Agnus-C
  • (D) Hell

133. Irritable pains are accompanied by excitement:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Chain
  • (C) Coffea
  • (D) Causticum

134. Convulsions of single muscle:

  • (A) Ignitia
  • (B) Cup-Met
  • (C) Mag-phos
  • (D) Bufo

135. Tension is the key-note of:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Arg-Nit
  • (C) Gels
  • (D) Ox-Acid

136. 4-8 P.M. aggravation in Bowel nosodes:

  • (A) Morgon gartner
  • (B) Morgon pure
  • (C) Proteus
  • (D) Bacillus-7

137. Morning diarrhoea in evening constipation:

  • (A) Alles
  • (B) Sulph
  • (C) Bryonia
  • (D) Nat-Mur

138. Suppressed menses leads to cardiac complaints:

  • (A) Abrotinum
  • (B) Bryonia
  • (C) Kalmia
  • (D) Phos.

139. Aversion to mother:

  • (A) Raphanus
  • (B) Silicia
  • (C) Caust
  • (D) Thuja

140. Back-ache is relieved by lying on abdomen. One drug is Acitic Acid; another is:

  • (A) Nat-Mur
  • (B) Medo
  • (C) Kalicarb
  • (D) Tubercilinum

141. Slow in learning to walk and talk due to sluggish development of mind:

  • (A) Agaricus
  • (B) CaI-carb
  • (C) Aethusa
  • (D) Bar-carb

142. Marasmus with retracted abdomen:

  • (A) Abrotinum
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Cal-carb
  • (D) Cal-phos

143. Angry at trifles and perfectly harmless things, but is soon sorry for it:

  • (A) Nat-Mur
  • (B) Ignitia
  • (C) Cham
  • (D) Meze

144. Asthama worse in foggy weather as per Boereik:

  • (A) Nat-Suip
  • (B) Duic.
  • (C) Rhus-Tox
  • (D) Hypericum

145. Complaints from eating melons and drinking impure water as per Boereik:

  • (A) Zingeber
  • (B) Pyrogen
  • (C) Duic.
  • (D) Nat-Sulp

146. Cal-carb and bar-carp – Drug relation:

  • (A) Concordant
  • (B) Incompatable
  • (C) Antidote
  • (D) Complementary

147. All Acid drugs are thirstless except:

  • (A) Acid-pic
  • (B) Lac-Acid
  • (C) Oxalic Acid
  • (D) Acitic Acid

148. 3 P.M. and 3 A.M. aggravation – Drug is:

  • (A) Puls
  • (B) Apis
  • (C) Kali-carb
  • (D) Thuja

149. Cough is better by lying down and aggravated in day time:

  • (A) Hyos
  • (B) Medo
  • (C) Pulse
  • (D) Manganum

150. The pains are tearing and aching – the seat of the disease is:

  • (A) Serous membranes
  • (B) Mucus membrane
  • (C) Tendons
  • (D) Muscles

Download answer key :  www.similima.com/pdf/kerala-mdentrance-2001-key.pdf

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