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Date posted: November 2, 2011

Chhatisgarh Public Service Commission. Raipur Medical Officer Homeopathy Exam 04/04/2010.
CGHP. 09  Question Paper (Sub. Code 01).
No. of  Questions in Booklet :100.
Time : 2 Hours,  Total Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES.
1.(a)  Candidates are allowed time to fill up the basic information about themselves in the OMR sheet such as Name, Roll No., etc.

(b)  After this, question booklet will be given to the candidates.

2. They are required to do the following :

(i) Examine the booklet and to see that all paper seals at the edge of the booklet are intact. Do not accept the question booklet if sticker seals are not intact.

(ii) Tally the number of papa along with no. of questions printed on cover of the booklet. In case of any discrepancy please get the booklet changed immediately.

(c) Candidates are not permitted to mark answers in the Answer-Sheet in this time. TWO HOURS more will be given to mark the answers.

2. (a)On Answer-Sheet, write/put Date of Exam., Name of Exam., Name, Signature, Roll No., Center Code and Name, Sr. No. of Question Booklet and Set of Question Booklet (A, B, C or D) supplied to you by Black Ball point pen.

(b) On Answer Sheet fill in your Roll No., Question Booklet Set, Subject Code and Centre Code etc by darkening corresponding circle 0 with Black Ball point pen.

(c) On Answer-Sheet only the answers to question a are to be marked. The instructions for this are available on the back cover page of this question booklet.

3. Optical Mark Reader (OMR) machine prepares the result by reading the entries made in the circle 0 with the Black Ball Point Pen on the Answer Sheet, hence the candidates must be extremely careful in marking these entries and must not commit errors.

4. Please do not write anything extra except what is asked for.

5. USE OF ANY CALCULATOR, LOG TABLES, MOBILE PHONE etc is PROHIBITED.

6. Rough work should be done on the blank pages or in the apace provided for this on each page of this question booklet: Extra paper will not be supplied.

INSTRUCTIONS REGARDING METHOD OF ANSWERING QUESTIONS

 (Please use Black Ball Point Pen Only)

1.Method of Marking Answer:

1. To give an answer, please darken one bubble out of the given four, in the OMR Answer Sheet against that question.

2. Valuation Procedure:

There are four answers to a question, only one of them is correct. Three marks will be awarded for each correct answer, if more than one bubble are darkened for a question, it will be presume that the candidate does not know the correct answer hence no mark.

3. Handling over of Answer-Sheet to Invigilator :

(i) Please ensure that all the entries in the answer-sheet are filled up properly i.e. Name, Roll No., Signature, Question Booklet No. etc.

(ii) Before the limitation of two hours duration while leaving the Examination Hall, hand over the question paper to the invigilator. If needed, after duration of period, you can ask for your question paper from the Centre Superintendent

4. Care in Handling the Answer-Sheet:

While using answer-sheet adequate care should be taken to tear or spoil due to folds or wrinkles.

Note :1.This question paper has 100 questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Attempt All questions.

2. Read carefully instructions regarding method of answering questions given on the last page and indicte your answers on the Answer-Sheet provided.

3.Use of any type of calculator or log table and Mobile Phone is prohibited.

(1) Materia Medica

1. Devil’s Dung is the common name of :

  • (A) Baptisia tinctoria       (B) Asafoetida
  • (C) Melilotus                       (D) Helleborus niger

2.At every menstrual nisus throat, mouth and tongue become intolerably dry especially when sleeping :

  • (A) Nux vomica and Nux moschata   (B) Lac can
  • (C) Tarentula                                               (D) Cyclamen

 3.Kreosotum is inimical to :

  • (A) Carbo veg        (B) Kali carb
  • (C)Nux vomica      (D) Phosphorous

4. Mental labor best performed at night :

  • (A) Nux vomica     (B) Argentum nitricum
  • (C) Lachesis            (D) Fluoric acid

5.In goitre after Spongia the medicine can be given is :

  • (A) Iodum                (B) Bromium
  • (C) Thyroidinum   (D) Fluoric acid

6. Must change position frequently but it is painful and gives little relief :

  • (A) Causticum       (B) Arsenic
  • (C) Natrum sulph  (D)Both (A) and (C)

 7. Chronic asthma in summer :

  • (A) Psorinum       (B) Syphilinum
  • (C) Medorrhinum (D) Bovista

8. Dreams that she is drinking :

  • (A) Arsenic         (B) Medorrhinum
  • (C)Phosphorus    (D) All of these

9.Vertigo at night with urging to urinate :

  • (A) Theredivn       (B) Spigeiia
  • (C) Tabacum        (D) Hypericum

10.Pain in back when swallowing :

  • (A) Kali carb          (B) Lycopodium
  • (C) Graphites         (D)Zincum met

11.Fear of being assassinated :

  • (A) Lac can            (B) Plumb met
  • (C) Aurum met      (D) Zincum met

12. Which of the following is known as louse seed :

  • (A) Phytolocca      (B) Staphisagria
  • (C) Lycopodium    (D) Anacardium

13. For first stage of ulceration of cornea :

  • (A) Sulphur            (B) Physostigma
  • (C) Calendula        (D) Sarsaparilla

14.Can not eat meat, it causes eructation, pruritis

  • (A) Cal. Phos    (B) Nitric Acid
  • (c) Rumex        (D) Bovista

15.The remedy for pain of death, soothes the last struggle

  • (A) Tarentula cubensis     (B) Veratrum album
  • (C) Hypericum                (D) Phosphoric acid

16.Albuminuria at later and full term pregnancy

  • (A) Merc cor.     (B) Phos
  • (C) Apis mel     (D) Helleborus

17. Aconite is contraindicated

  • (A) Malarial fever         (B) Pyaemic condition
  • (C) Both of the above   (D) None of these

18. Chills runs up and down the back with shivering, followed by a suffocating sensation:

  • (A) Medorrhinum     (B) Mag phos
  • (C) Cyclamen              (D) Spigelia

19. Will often abort a beginning suppurative process near the rectum

  • (A) Rhustox    (B) Ruta. g.
  • (C) Ratanhia   (D) Silicea

20.Vivid dreams of fire is found in

  • (A) Heper sulph    (B) Phosphorous
  • (C) Sulphur          (D Cicuta

(2) Biochemic Medicines

21. Fears financial ruin :

  • (A) Kali. phos         (B) Cal. flour
  • (C) Cal. phos          (D) Natrum phos

22.Dreams of Running water :

  • (A) Kali sulph         (B) Natrum sulph
  • (C) Kali phos          (D) Natrurn phos

23. Hippocratic countenance :

  • (A) Calcarea sulph   (B)Kali. mur
  • (C) Kali phos              (D) Natrum phos

24. Sensation of hair at tip of the tongue :

  • (A) Natrum phos      (B) Natrum mur
  • (C) Mag phos             (D) Kali mur

25. Golden yellow coating on tongue :

  • (A) Natrum sulph    (B) Kali sulph
  • (C) Mag mur               (D) Natrum phos.

(3) Pharmacy

26. Which of the following is false :

  • (A) Sp Gr of olive oil is 0.813-0.890
  • (B) Sp Gr of glycerine is 1.255-1.266
  • (C) Sp Gr of dilute alcohol is 0.913-0.916
  • (D) P Gr of absolute alcohol is -0.7935

27. Q.L. or Quantum libet means :

  • (A) As much as required                    (B) As much as you please
  • (C) As much as one can repeat          (D) None of these

28. “Poison is everything and nothing is without poison, the dose make it a poison or a remedy” declared by :

  • (A) Hahnemann   (B) Asclepiades
  • (C) Paracelsus    (D) Rademacher and Hahnemann both

29.Drug power of Moschus by new method of preparation is :

  • (A) 1/10 (B) 1/20
  • (C) 1/30 (D) 1/100

30. Anacardium orientale is prepared in which class of old method :

  • (A) Class IV             (B) Class IX
  • (C) Class VII            (D) Both Class IV and IX

(4) Forensic Medicine 

31. Number of hours since death is calculated by multiplying the fall in rectal temperature :

  • (A) 0.33        (B) 0.67
  • (C) 1.33       (D) 1.5 32

32. Puglistic attitude in burn is seen in :

  • (A) Antemortem burn
  • (B) Postmortem burn
  • (C) Both Antemortem and Postmortem burn
  • (D) Suicidal burn

33. To make a positive identification with the help of a partial finger point, the points of similarity should be at least :

  • (A) 10     (B) 16
  • (C) 12     (D) 22

34.Pearson’s formula is used for :

  • (A) Race             (B) Age
  • (C) Stature         (D) Cephalic index

35.A dead born fetus does not have :

  • (A) Rigor mortis at birth            (B) Adepocere formation
  • (C) Maceration                         (D) Mummification

(6) Toxicology 

36.Run Amok Homicid delusion is characteristic of :

  • (A) Cannabis          (B) Cocaine
  • C) Dhatura             (D) Alcohol poisoning

37. Perforation of stomach is more common due to :

  • (A) Nitric acid                         (B) Sulphuric acid
  • (C) Hydrochloric acid          (D) Carbolic acid

38. Macewan’s sign is associated with :

  • (A) Alcohol poisoning          (B) Pontine Haemorrhage
  • (C) Cerebellar tumour         (D) Cocaine intoxication

39. In organophosphorus poisoning the following are seen except :

  • (A) Pupillary dilatation        (B) Salivation
  • (C) Bronchospasm                 (D) Sweating

40. About 20 gms of hair required to be preserved in :

  • (A)Mineral poisoning           (B) Antimony poisoning
  • (C) Codeine poisoning         (D) Aconite poisoning

(6) Community Medicine

41.Pasteurization kills all except :

  • (A) Sore throat causing bacilli
  • (B) Bacillary dysentery organism
  • (C) Staphylococcal exotoxin
  • (D) Brucellosis

42.Colour produced in orthotoluidine test is :

  • (A) Red   (B) Yellow
  • (C) Blue  (D) Green

43. Floor space for two persons is :

  • (A) 70-90 sq. feet                  (B) 90-100 sq. feet
  • (C) 50–70 sq. feet                (D) 110-120 sq. feet

44.Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of :

  • (A) Point source epidemic   (B)Propagated epidemic
  • (C) Mass epidemic                  (D)None of these

45.Diagnostic accuracy of a test is determined by :

  • (A) Sensitivity                        (B) Specificity
  • (C) Predictive value             (D) None of these

(7) National Health Programme

 46.Problem village is all except :

  • (A) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from a community
  • (B) Water is more than depth of 15 m
  • (C) There is excess of Na+, K+, F+, Salts
  • D) Risk of Guinea worm infection

47.ICDS package does not include :

  • (A) Nutrition                          (B) Immunization
  • (C) Health check up            (C) Formal education

48.All of the following programmes are sponsored by ministry of social welfare except :

  • (A) Balwadi Nutrition Programme     (B) Special Nutrition Programme
  • (C) Mid-day Meal Programme           (D) ICDS

49. Iodized oil used in preventing goitre is :

  • (A) Croton oil        (B) Castor oil
  • (C) Almond oil       (C) Poppy seed oil

50. Child guidance clinic is helpful for :

  • (A) Bedwetting problem     (B) Impaired hearing
  • (C) Eye squint                  (D) Cerebral palsy

(8) Surgery

51.In Glasgow coma scale all of the following are considered except :

  • (A) Eye opening          (B) Verbal response
  • (C) Motor response     (D) Sensory response

52.Nicoladoni branham sign is :

  • (A) Compression causes tachycardia      (B) Compression causes bradycardia
  • (C) Hypotension                                                (D) Systolic filling

53.The commonest complication of intracapsular fracture neck of femur is :

  • (A) Osteoarthritis   (B) Malunion
  • (C) Shortening         (D) Nonunion

54. Fracture zygoma shows all the features except :

  • (A) Diplopia             (B) CSF Rhinorrhoea
  • (C) Epistaxis            (D) Trismus

55. Skin graft survival in the first 48 hours is dependent on :

  • (A)Random connection between host and donor capillaries
  • (B) Plasmatic imbibition
  • (C) Saline dressing
  • (D)Development of New blood vessels

56.Seat belt causes injury to :

  • (A) Duodenum
  • (B) Head injury due to wind screen
  • (C) Thorax
  • (D) All of the above

57. Which one is not Ranson’s prognostic criteria in acute pancreatitis

  • (A) Age over 55 years
  • (B) Blood glucose more than 200 mg%
  • (C) WBC more than 16000/mm3
  • (D) Serum calcium more than 8 mg%

58.Commonest complication following the haemorrhoidectomy is :

  • (A) Haemorrhage                  (B) Infection
  • (C) Urinary retention          (D) Fecal impaction

59. Vicryl, the commonly used suture material is a :

  • (A) Homopolymer of polydioxanone
  • (B) Co-polymer of glycolide and lectide
  • (C) Homopolymer of glycolide
  • (D) Homopolymer of lactide

60.Glod standard for reflux oesophagitis :

  • (A) Manomary                      (B) Barium swallow
  • (C)24 hrs pH study               (D) X-Ray abdomen

(9) Obstetrics and Gynaecology

61. Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except :

  • (A) Neural Tube Defect         (B) Duodenal Atresia
  • (C) Talipes equinovarus        (D) Omphalocele

62. Lochia rubra is seen up to :

  • (A) 5 days              (C) 10 days
  • (C) 15 days            (D) 20 days

63. If division of fertilized egg occurs at 4th -8th  day, what kind of monozygotic twin pregnancy will it give rise to :

  • (A) Diamniotic Dichorionic                    (B) Diamniotic Monochorionic
  • (C) Monoamniotic Monochorionic      (D) Conjoint twins

64. Sex determination in early pregnancy is done by :

  • (A) X-Rays                       (B)USG
  • (C) Amniocentasis      (D) Hysteroscopy

65. Most common site of puerperal infection is :

  • (A) Episiotomy wound         (B) Placental site
  • (C) Vaginal laceration          (D) Cervical laceration

66. Rule of Hasse is used to determine :

  • (A) The age of the fetus      (B) Height of the Adult
  • (C) Race of a person          (D) Identification

67.Cystocele is formed by which part of bladder ?

  • (A) Trigone                        (B) Base
  • (C) Superior surface       (D) Posterior

68. Confirmation of the diagnosis of the vesicular mole is by

  • (A) Vaginal examination         (B) X-Rays
  • (C) Abdominal examination    (D) Ultrasonography

69. Most fixed retroversion of uterus results from :

  • (A) Congenital         (B) Endometriosis
  • (C) Pelvic tumour   (D) Salpingo-oophoritis

70. Meconium is excreted by a newborn till :

  • (A) Second day     (B) 3rd  day
  • (C) 6th  day            (D) 4th  day

(10) Practice of Medicine

71. Decreased glucose level in pleural effusion is found in :

  • (A) Rheumatoid arthritis                     (B) SLE
  • (C) Pneumococcal infection               (D) P. carini infection

72. Fibrosis around Brunner’s gland is characteristic of :

  • (A) Intestinal lymphoma      (B) Radiation enteritis
  • (C) Amyloidosis                     (D) Scleroderma

73.In coeliac sprue there is deficiency of all except :

  • (A) Vitamin A         (B) Vitamin B12
  • (C) Folic acid         (D) Iron

74. Hepatitis B virus is associated with :

  • (A) SLE                                       (B) Polyanteritis nodosa
  • (C) Sjogren’s syndrome       (D) Wegnar granulomatosis

75. Vitamin D resistant ricket is inherited as :

  • (A) Autosomal dominant     (B) Autosomal recessive
  • (C) X-linked recessive         (D) X-linked dominant

76.Astasia abasia is seen in :

  • (A) Perkinsonism  (B) Alzheimer’s
  • (C) Schizophrenia (D) Hysterical convulsion disorder

77. Insulin stress test estimates :

  • (A) Diabetes melitus            (B)Growth hormone
  • (C) Glucagons assay             (D)Catecholamines

78. In diabetic nephropathy all of the following are true except :

  • (A) Candiovascular abnormalities can occur
  • (B) Micro and macro-albuminuria can occur
  • (C) ACE inhibitors can reduce microalbuminuria
  • (D)Insulin requirements become high

79. Isolated 3rd Nerve palsy seen in :

  • (A) Frontal tumour               (B)Weber syndrome
  • (C) Diabetes                      (D) Internal carotid aneurysm

80.Lesion not seen in Lepromatous leprosy :

  • (A) Papule              (B) Macule
  • (C) Vesicle             (D) Nodes

81.Alopecia areata is due to :

  • (A) Estrogen stimulation     (B) Androgen stimulation
  • (C) Lichenoid reaction        (D) Autoimmune

82.Sinusitis in children is commonest in :

  • (A) Frontal             (B) Maxillary
  • (C) Ethmoidal        (D) Sphenoid

83.Thrombosis of superior branch of middle cerebral artery leads to :

  • (A) Motor aphasia                           (B) Urinary incontinence
  • (C) Homonymus hernianopia     (D) Contralateral grasp reflex

84.Plucked chicken skin appearance is pathognomonic of :

  • (A) Pseudoxanthoma elastica     (B) Marfan’s syndrome
  • (C) Homocystinuria                        (D) Acute intermittent porphyria

85.All of the following can cause diabetes insipidus except :

  • (A) Multiple sclerosis          (B) Head injury
  • (C) Histocystosis              (D) Viral encephalitis

(11) Organon of Medicine and Homoeopathic Philosophy including Repertory 

86.In 2nd and 3rd  edition of organon of Medicine the missing aphorisms are :

  • (A)215, 216, 217    (B) 216, 217, 218
  • (C) 217, 218, 219   (D) 218, 219, 220

87. Duty of Physician if no improvement follows after giving the drugs which have alternating action :

  • (A) Give placebo
  • (B) Give same medicine in higher potency
  • (C) Give equally small dose of same medicine
  • (D) Change the remedy immediately

88. During the course of LM potency if there is aggravation then medicine to be taken from 2nd or 3rd cup, is stated in :

  • (A) Aph. 247 footnote 6th edition
  • (B) Aph. 248 footnote 6th edition
  • (C) Aph. 270 footnote 6th edition
  • (D) Aph. 246 footnote 6th edition

89. Among the 12 observations which observations are unfavorable :

  • (A) 5, 7, 10, 12      (B) 2, 4, 6, 8
  • (C) 3, 5, 9, 11        (D) 1, 4, 6, 11

90. According to Hahnemann a person who is to be mesmerised should not wear :

  • (A) Cotton         (B) Wool
  • (C) Silk                 (D) Linen

91.Camphor is antidoted by :

  • (A) Camphor itself
  • (B) Opium
  • (C) Strong sulphuric acid
  • (D) Nothing can antidote camphor

92. Prone to crave for spirituous liquors —> it belongs to which miasmatic state ?

  • (A) Psoric               (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Syphilitic        (D) Tubercular

93. During proving of the narcotics we observe the :

  • (A) Primary action                (B) Secondary action
  • (C) Alternating action          (D) All of these

94. Usually aggravated from eating any food and ameliorated by lying on the stomach or by pressure, belongs to :

  • (A) Psoric               (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Syphilitic          (D) Tubercular

95. Father of homoeopathic veterinary science is :

  • (A) Hahnemann      (B) M. Lux
  • (C) Griesselich        (D) Jenner

96. Preface to the “Repertory of the antipsoric medicine” was given by :

  • (A) Boenninghausem     (B) A. Lippe
  • (C) Hahnemann               (D) C. Dunham

97.Madame Hahnemann requested permission from the police to keep the master Hahnemann’s dead body for :

  • (A) 2-3 days     (B) 5-7 days
  • (C) 9-13 days   (D) 14-20 days

98. O tempora ! O mores ! has been stated by Hahnemann in connection to :

  • (A) Large doses of Drug
  • (B) Use of Alcohol
  • (C) Disadvantages of poly pharmacy
  • (D) Against the use of external application

99.Homoeopathic aggravation is the :

  • (A) Primary action                          (B) Secondary counter-action
  • (C) Secondary curative action     (D) Alternating action

100. According to Hahnemann how long the power of globule remains undiminished and used for olfaction it kept away from sunlight :

  • (A) 1-5 years      (B) 6-10 years
  • (C) 12-15 years   (D)18 or 20 years 

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